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    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
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      On 15/1/24 booked appointment with Big Motoring World (BMW) to view a mini on 17/1/24 at 8pm at their Enfield dealership.  

      Car was dirty and test drive was two circuits of roundabout on entry to the showroom.  Was p/x my car and rushed by sales exec and a manager into buying the mini and a 3yr warranty that night, sale all wrapped up by 10pm.  They strongly advised me taking warranty out on car that age (2017) and confirmed it was honoured at over 500 UK registered garages.

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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

      Please note that a recent case against UPS failed on exactly the same issue with the judge held that the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 did not apply.

      We will be getting that transcript very soon. We will look at it and we will understand how the judge made such catastrophic mistakes. It was a very poor judgement.
      We will be recommending that people do include this adverse judgement in their bundle so that when they go to county court the judge will see both sides and see the arguments against this adverse judgement.
      Also, we will be to demonstrate to the judge that we are fair-minded and that we don't mind bringing everything to the attention of the judge even if it is against our own interests.
      This is good ethical practice.

      It would be very nice if the parcel delivery companies – including EVRi – practised this kind of thing as well.

       

      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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Concerning the issue of whether we are a casual worker or a an employee there is many criteria to consider for example the time we work for the employer, our skills, whether he employs us only in case of shortage or during peak time or he uses us in the normal running of our business...etc.

 

 

However I would like to know if the conclusive evidence is not when the P45 has been issued because if it has been issued one year after the start of employment this means that we are now an employee.

 

It is up to the employer to decide if he need us anymore or nor and as a consequence if he send us our P45 or not. If the employer decides because it is not convenient for him not to issue a P45 at the end of each project we could be consider as an employee

 

There is also the issue of HMRC and in order the employer not to pay tax maybe a worker has to work only for a small period of time and not come back for a long time

 

There is also the issue of the difference between temporary employee and a casual worker

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The issue is if we have worked for an employer doing projects and we are dismissed after one year and the employer says that we are not entitled to claim unfair dismissal because we were workers because from time to time there were gaps of two or three weeks between the projects and as a consequence we were worker and not employee and we cannot have one year continuity service.

 

 

In this case I would like to know if the employee does not send us the P45 at the end of each project but when we were dismissed after one year if this means that we were employees and not workers and entitled to claim unfair dismissal

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If you were dismissed after one year you would still not be able to claim Unfair Dismissal (unless for dismissal due to a protected characteristic) as the threshold is now two years.

Any advice given is done so on the assumption that recipients will also take professional advice where appropriate.

 

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I have looked in this website but it gives only general information about the difference between employee and casual worker. However my problem is more specific.

 

 

The events to which I refer relates before the law changes so for me it is one-year continuity service.

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the law has been changed for a long time - you may be out of time for a claim. when did your employment start?

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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My opinion is that it depends when the P45 is sent to them. If it is sent at the end of each period of work they are workers. However if this is not the case and if the P45 was sent to them after one year (now is two years) they become employee on flexible hours.

The difference is that they would be able to claim unfair dismissal if they are removed from the bank register without any good reason or are dismissed in the middle of a project without any good reasons.

In fact it will depend on the need of the employer. If it is not practicable for the employer to issue a P45 to many people very often and choose not send it after each period of work and not sent it before one year they could be considered as employees. However I am not sure I am right. Otherwise staff could be used for many years nearly as permanent employee without ever obtaining the same rights as employees

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  • 2 weeks later...

I would like to know if the 'leaving date' stated in the P45 is the date when the employment relationship ended and could be used to prove that we have enough continuity of service to claim unfair dismissal

 

 

I would like to know which regulation deals with the meaning of the 'leaving date' in the P45

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Other documents would take precedence - such as a letter of dismissal or personnel record. A P45 is merely a declaration of pay and tax deducted so these would have to be correct for the tax week stated on the P45. Omissions or errors to a leaving date might have an impact on the tax paid when restarting employment but nothing more.

Any advice given is done so on the assumption that recipients will also take professional advice where appropriate.

 

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Lots of variables here. Can you give us more detail on what you are trying to claim and why please? Or we'll be guessing what to tell you :)

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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What happens when there is no letter of dismissal and no record ?

 

 

Moreover in order to be entirely sure I would like to know which act of parliament or regulation deals with this issue

 

If there is no record of dismissal held by the employer, nor a letter advising of dismissal issued to the employee, then this would be open to argument - an employee might argue that a date stated on a legal document such as a P45 could imply that the employer had in his mind a termination date when completing the P45 with that date on it. There might also be implications drawn from a wage slip showing whether an employee was paid to a specific date and for no longer. This might support a date shown on a P45 in an employee's favour, or it might counter that argument and support an employer's assertion that a date on a P45 was indicative merely of the date when the final payroll was run.

 

This is not an issue covered by legislation, but one of contract - in the absence of written information one would draw inferences from documentary evidence or hearsay.

 

The legislation relating to the P45 itself would be Regulation 36 of The Income Tax (Pay As You Earn) Regulations 2003, specifically:-

 

36. (1) On ceasing to employ an employee in respect of whom a code has been issued, the employer must complete Form P45.

 

(2) The employer must then—

 

(a)send Part 1 of that form to the Inland Revenue, and

(b)provide Parts 1A, 2 and 3 to the employee,

on the day on which the employment ceases or, if that is not practicable, without unreasonable delay.

 

(3) Retirement on pension is not a cessation of employment for the purposes of this regulation if the PAYE pension income is paid by the same employer after retirement.

 

(4) The information listed in column 1 of Table 2 must, subject to the conditions set out in column 2, be provided in the various Parts of Form P45 as indicated in columns 3 to 5.

 

 

Information which must be provided in Form P45

 

Information to be provided

 

1. the employer’s PAYE reference

 

2. the employee’s national insurance number

 

3. the employee’s name

 

4. the date on which the employment ceased

 

5. the employee’s code or, if more than one, the latest code, issued by the Inland Revenue for the tax year during which the employment ceased

 

6. whether the employee’s code is used on the cumulative basis

 

7. the tax week or month in which the last relevant payment was made to the employee or, in a case falling within regulation 24, was treated as having been made

 

8. the total payments to date and the corresponding total net tax deducted

 

9. the total payments to date relating to the employment in question and the corresponding total net tax deducted

 

10. the total payments to date relating to the employment in question and the corresponding total net tax deducted

 

11. the number used by the employer to identify the employee

 

12. the department or branch in which the employee was employed

 

13. the employee’s address

 

14. the employer’s name

 

15. the employer’s address

 

16. the date the Form is completed

 

The regulations do nothing more than impose obligations regarding completion of the P45 which would be within the jurisdiction of an ET, but one could form an argument that since the Regulations stipulate that both a 'Leaving' date and a 'Form Completion' date must be entered that an employer must have had it in mind that an employee's leaving date was 'X' at the time the form was completed. It would then be for the employer to explain why that was not the case and whether this was a genuine oversight - the employee's argument would be strengthened if that cannot be adequately explained, particularly if the termination pay was consistent with the leaving date shown on the P45, and the employer's counter-argument would be more plausible if that consistency was not evident and if there was a reasonable explanation for the date error.

Any advice given is done so on the assumption that recipients will also take professional advice where appropriate.

 

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I would like to use the ‘leaving date’ on my P45 to prove that I have enough continuity service to make a claim for unfair dismissal

I was suspended but usually suspension is on full pay but I was not paid

 

I have a part time job so I did not work every day

 

The reasons put forward by my employer for not having sent me before a P45 is that he has to wait the end of the payroll period before issuing a P45 and he has to wait that I was paid before issuing a P45.

 

 

The payroll period for the firm ends at the end of the month and the staffs were paid at the beginning of next month

 

My employer put forward also as reason for not having sent a P45 before the fact that 10 days after I was suspended there was the festive period and his office was closed

 

Hence the important question is whether a P45 could be issued only at the end of a payroll period when we are paid and if a P45 can be issued at any time.

 

Another important question is if the ‘leaving date’ is put automatically by the computer in the P45 when it is issued or it is the employer who chooses to put the ‘leaving date’ that he wishes on the P45.

 

 

Moreover there is only one date in the P45 i.e. the ‘leaving date’ because the date when the P45 was issued is not stated in the P45.

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Yes and the suspension period ended when I received my P45

 

My question is important because an employer cannot deny that the 'leaving date' in the real date of end of the employment relationship if he has decided himself which leaving date he put in the P45. Unless he says that it was a mistake of his accoutant

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The legislation you need is the Employment Rights Act which spells out how the date of the termination of employment is calculated.

 

I'd say the date on your P45 is a good starting point if you have had no dismissal letter. Under ERA you are entitled to have written reasons for the dismissal.

 

Incidentally, the date on the P45 is entered by whoever does the payroll, and is nothing to do with what the compu'er says.

 

Does it match the date you were told you were fired?

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  • 2 years later...

I started to work on a ‘zero hours contract’ for a firm to complete a project which was intended to last for seven weeks. There was a probationary period of 30 hours. After I did 43 hours I was told that I cannot carry on with the project and I was removed from the project.

 

Technically because I worked more than 30 hours my probationary period was over when I was removed from the project. However it is possible that my employer nevertheless considers that I have been removed from the project because I have failed my probationary period.

 

My supervisor told me by email that I was removed from the project because I did not do the introduction of work properly and when late I complained I was told also by email that my productivity was not good.

 

However I consider that these reasons did not correspond to the reason stated in the documents given to me by my employer to remove a worker from a project which a worker will be removed from a project if he/she did not follow repeatedly the guidance given to her/him by his/her supervisor or underperform for a significant period in comparison of the other workers on the project for the following reasons

 

• If I did not do the introduction of the work properly it is a question of guidance given by the supervisor to the worker and there is no evidence that I refuse to follow the guidance. Moreover my supervisor did not ask me to correct the way I did the introduction and did not give me any guidance concerning this matter

 

• The introduction of the work does not form part of the project itself.

 

• My supervisor told me also that I could do another project but not a project of this seniority what is not a good reason to remove me from a project according to my employer’s rule

 

• I was told that I underperformed but not that I underperformed in comparison to the other workers in the project. I know that I did not underperform in comparison to the other workers in the project because I know what was the work that the others workers did

 

• My supervisor told me that my productivity was not good because I worked 70 hours even though I work in reality only 40 hours and I had to correct him what is evidence that my productivity was not property assessed by my supervisor.

 

• My employer did not follow its own rules to assess my work.

 

I think that my supervisor did not tell me the real reason why I was removed from the project and that he was looking for an excuse. The reason could be that my employer has phoned to one of my previous employers who told him bad things about me because I issued in the past a claim to the ET against him or it is one of the discriminatory reasons like age, race or disability for example.

 

I am unhappy because I have refused to work for another firm to work for this firm and at the end I have no work at all. I would like to know if I can bring a claim for breach of contract against my employer because ‘zero hours contract’ mean a contract and I would like to know if my employer by not following its own rules concerning the removal of a worker from a project has committed a breach of contract. I would like to claim loss of earnings within a breach of contract and be paid at least the six remaining weeks of the project that I was not paid. I would like to claim also for injury of feelings

 

I would like to know also if I have to issue my claim to the Employment Tribunal or to the County Court

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If you were on a true zero hours contract, your employer could simply choose to say they have no hours for you each week for the remaining weeks (if you are on a fixed period contract, or forever if you are on an open ended contract)

 

Unfortunately, until you have worked for an employee for more than 2 years you have no rights to take your employer to a tribunal for unfair dismissal (or much else) unless it's on grounds for discrimination where special rules apply

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I think that you are maybe right and I was in a ‘fixed term contract’ and not in a ‘zero hours contract’ because I should have been employed until the end of a specific event i.e. the end of a project. However contrary to what you say I do not want to claim for unfair dismissal for which two years of continuity of work is required but I want to claim for breach of contract because the fixed term contract was ended prematurely by my employer without according to me any good reasons as explained in my first post.

 

As explained in my first post there is also the issue of the probationary period.

 

I have an additional issue because the employees of this firm who were in a fixed term contract were entitled to join the pension scheme of this firm and I was prevented from joining it because the contract was ended prematurely by my employer. Therefore I would like to know if I can claim also for this reason and if I can ask the Employment Tribunal to force this previous employer to enrol me now in his pension scheme.

 

I would like to know if the formal disciplinary procedure in case of underperformance applies also to the probationary period because if yes does the very short probationary period of 30 hours has any sense in law because the disciplinary procedure says that the worker who underperformed could be dismissed if he underperformed repeatedly after being warned several times what means that his underperformance should be assessed during a long period and 30 hours is not a long period?

 

My other question is does the employer need to have a probation period if there is already a clause in the contract which says that he can remove a worker from a project if he underperforms?

 

Therefore I would like to know if I issue a claim to the Employment Tribunal do I need to make any reference in the claim form to my probation period or only to the clause which says that my employer can remove a worker from a project who underperforms?

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Can you clarify what you think your claim is for please? You raise a lot of points but I can't see one which in law you would be compemsated for.

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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The only possible claim it sounds like you might have is a claim for breach of contract. In which case you would need to say exactly what part of the contract you believe has been breached?

 

Even if the reasons given for your dismissal were totally bogus, I suppose the employer would have been entitled to reduce your hours to zero, or to dismiss you (one week's notice is required if you have more than one month's service).

 

Injury for damage to feelings is not available for dismissal claims. In any event you do not have the 2 years service required to claim for unfair dismissal.

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were you paid for the work you did and then an uplift of 12% for holiday pay accrued? If not you have a claim but other than that very little of substance as you appear to be paid an hourly rate rather than say £xxxx for doing a specific project, regardless of how long it took to complete

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