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    • Northmonk forget what I said about your Notice to Hirer being the best I have seen . Though it  still may be  it is not good enough to comply with PoFA. Before looking at the NTH, we can look at the original Notice to Keeper. That is not compliant. First the period of parking as sated on their PCN is not actually the period of parking but a misstatement  since it is only the arrival and departure times of your vehicle. The parking period  is exactly that -ie the time youwere actually parked in a parking spot.  If you have to drive around to find a place to park the act of driving means that you couldn't have been parked at the same time. Likewise when you left the parking place and drove to the exit that could not be describes as parking either. So the first fail is  failing to specify the parking period. Section9 [2][a] In S9[2][f] the Act states  (ii)the creditor does not know both the name of the driver and a current address for service for the driver, the creditor will (if all the applicable conditions under this Schedule are met) have the right to recover from the keeper so much of that amount as remains unpaid; Your PCN fails to mention the words in parentheses despite Section 9 [2]starting by saying "The notice must—..." As the Notice to Keeper fails to comply with the Act,  it follows that the Notice to Hirer cannot be pursued as they couldn't get the NTH compliant. Even if the the NTH was adjudged  as not  being affected by the non compliance of the NTK, the Notice to Hirer is itself not compliant with the Act. Once again the PCN fails to get the parking period correct. That alone is enough to have the claim dismissed as the PCN fails to comply with PoFA. Second S14 [5] states " (5)The notice to Hirer must— (a)inform the hirer that by virtue of this paragraph any unpaid parking charges (being parking charges specified in the notice to keeper) may be recovered from the hirer; ON their NTH , NPE claim "The driver of the above vehicle is liable ........" when the driver is not liable at all, only the hirer is liable. The driver and the hirer may be different people, but with a NTH, only the hirer is liable so to demand the driver pay the charge  fails to comply with PoFA and so the NPE claim must fail. I seem to remember that you have confirmed you received a copy of the original PCN sent to  the Hire company plus copies of the contract you have with the Hire company and the agreement that you are responsible for breaches of the Law etc. If not then you can add those fails too.
    • Weaknesses in some banks' security measures for online and mobile banking could leave customers more exposed to scammers, new data from Which? reveals.View the full article
    • I understand what you mean. But consider that part of the problem, and the frustration of those trying to help, is the way that questions are asked without context and without straight facts. A lot of effort was wasted discussing as a consumer issue before it was mentioned that the property was BTL. I don't think we have your history with this property. Were you the freehold owner prior to this split? Did you buy the leasehold of one half? From a family member? How was that funded (earlier loan?). How long ago was it split? Have either of the leasehold halves changed hands since? I'm wondering if the split and the leashold/freehold arrangements were set up in a way that was OK when everyone was everyone was connected. But a way that makes the leasehold virtually unsaleable to an unrelated party.
    • quite honestly id email shiply CEO with that crime ref number and state you will be taking this to court, for the full sum of your losses, if it is not resolved ASAP. should that be necessary then i WILL be naming Shiply as the defendant. this can be avoided should the information upon whom the courier was and their current new company contact details, as the present is simply LONDON VIRTUAL OFFICES  is a company registered there and there's a bunch of other invisible companies so clearly just a mail address   
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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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What if the Judge asks..................... ....


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DO YOU OWE THE MONEY!!!!

 

This is been mentioned on several threads at the moment and I thought I would try and get it into one.

 

The big day arrives the Claimant has no CA or with no perscribed terms and you are going to use 127(3) of the CCA 1974.

 

The judge turns around and says: Well have you spent the money and do you owe it"

 

Please comment on this as the more ideas the better for the big day.

 

Cheers

 

HAK

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I cannot be sure sir as I owe lots to several companies and I've had several companies chasing the same debt on more than one occasion. It's a job to know who I owe the money to, that's why I requested the appropiate paperwork.

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How about 'Respectfully Sir, the claimant is asking the court to enforce a credit agreement. The issue is not whether money is owed, but whether a credit agreement is actually enforceable. The claimant is unable to produce the credit agreement, therefore how can the court be sure that should such an agreement exist it was drawn up in accordance with the Consumer Credit Act.'

 

Or modify it if they produce an unenforceable agreement: 'Respectfully Sir, the claimant is asking the court to enforce a credit agreement. The issue is not whether money is owed, but whether a credit agreement is actually enforceable. The claimant has produced an agreement which is clearly not drawn up in accordance with the Consumer Credit Act and I ask the court to consider this when passing judgement.'

 

I've not actually been to court but do people think these are reasonable statements?

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Morally Yes I probably do, however I only owe this to the original creditor, who then failed in their duties to ensure the credit agreement they are now relying on is valid under Consumer Law, so in hindsight No I do not owe the money

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There is also another angle to this in most credit card cases:

 

Whilst you might have spent money advanced to you, you have been making payments over the years. One exceeds the other but, more often than not, it will be what you have repaid that exceeds the amount advanced rather than the other way around.

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hiya great thread HAK

 

am subbing,,,,

 

i like 42man responce,,,,as at the end of the day, showing precedent must outweigh any moral obligation far more in my humble opinion.....as that is the law we all seek to follow.....

 

laters dudes

 

angel x

Im happy to help with support and my own thoughts, but if I offer any thoughts to your problems please take it as from my life experience only and not of any legal standing. Always take further advice from the legal experts in your final action.:)

 

my new motto is,,,",Taking back control of your life and home - such peace is priceless"

 

This is all due to truecall device , have a serious peek at this you will be thankful like I am x laters angel :D

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I found this reply I had on my PC from ages ago:

 

I would have bluntly answered " I had a card with them, but it's so long ago i don't have my original copy of the agreement. the creditors company recommended people keep original paperwork for 6 months. Further, the Money Laundering Regs make it a serious criminal offence punishable by 10 years in prison for each director of the company, for the claimant not to keep this paperwork, so I believe that they must have a copy of the agreement.

 

I've asked them for a copy of the agreement on 4 occasions, and made it clear to the claimant I would settle with them when I saw that agreement. Until I can see what I actually signed up for, i honestly don't know how much I am liable for, if anything."

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My answer would be.....

 

The me owing money issue doesn't come into it. However for the DCA to legally ask me to pay them any sum of money depends on the lawful enforceability of the agreement they claim gives them the right to demand money from me. And this is the reason why we're all here today.

My defence points to missing terms, etc, that render the application form/"agreement" unenforceable, even in a court of law.

By the end, I should imagine that any money payable will actually be from the DCA to me, for my costs to have to defend a claim they had no hope of winning in the first place.

 

To the DCA representaive....

 

Mr Gingerbread man is going to get you at playtime. :D

These are video links to show how I deal with Debt Collectors.

 

Fly fishing for C.A.R.S

http://uk.youtube.com/watch?v=zPtzK8FqE6k&feature=related

 

Frederickson International don't accept my card type

http://uk.youtube.com/watch?v=eiZBULlWW6Q&feature=related

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In the event of no CCA, one could say that in equity all capital borrowed has been repaid.

 

With no CCA, there is no proof that you ever agreed to pay interest, which is what the alleged debt consists of.

 

Get your statements, add up all you borrowed, add up all youve paid. If youve repaid more than you've borrowed, then all that is left is interest and charges.

 

If they have no agreement, then they have no proof that you ever agreed to pay interest.

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Subscribing, one guest ......mmmm i thought there would be more:p

 

Hope its not the Judge Club:eek:

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From a few cases I have seen here , the judge seems to hold the opinion , that if you do owe the money ..regardless of a CCA or a DN not in order et all, then he will rule for the creditor , regardless of your defence . So , I would say , No .. your honour , I do not owe the money .

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