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    • Thanks DX , true I was reading it as my own licence when I can now see it is the VED thanks for the clarification. As for the payments that does make sense and I will give them a call today. I have to watch the date as I have 21 days from the 29th May to respond to plea of guilty or not.
    • This is the latest response from IDR. I know exactly what has happened - I left Qatar in 2006 leaving behind card debt of QAR13,000 (unintentionally, I thought it was paid off). When I visited Qatar for a weekend in 2012, I was blocked from leaving the country - ended up having to go to the Court, met with the bank and negitiated a settlement  - they wanted about QAR90,000 in total and supposedly agreed on QAR40,000 to settle completely. Unfortunately, I only have a pay-in receipt for that and no confirmation the whole debt was settled: I was so focussed on getting the exit ban lifted. Anyway, I left and I have visited Qatar since then with no issue. My concern is that the statute of limitations  will run from 2012, rather than 2006. Should I continue to ignore or explain to IDR that I don't agree there is an exisiting debt? IDR 10062024 redacted.pdf
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    • as with some of your threads in the past. you are not reading things carefully and understanding things properly by going off on assumptions. not sure where you are getting your driving licence is being revoked from? nowhere do they use that word. nothing to do with it. vehicle excise licence. (Road Tax), a VEL cannot be revoked only voided. you are also wrong and nowhere does the DVLA state they cancelled the DD.  the court summons clearly states in the DVLA statement: it was your cancelling/reclaim of the DD on 15-02-2024 that caused this, NOTHING to do with the DVLA, they did not revoke the VEL. as they received no payment, on 02.05.2024 the VEL was Voided. it appears you have got the new DD setup wrong to the wrong DVLA account/ref number/VEL number. they have not received the payments to the correct VEL. i would be ringing DVLA and finding out where these payments are on their system and get them attributed to the correct VEL. that should solve the problem.
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What if the Judge asks..................... ....


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DO YOU OWE THE MONEY!!!!

 

This is been mentioned on several threads at the moment and I thought I would try and get it into one.

 

The big day arrives the Claimant has no CA or with no perscribed terms and you are going to use 127(3) of the CCA 1974.

 

The judge turns around and says: Well have you spent the money and do you owe it"

 

Please comment on this as the more ideas the better for the big day.

 

Cheers

 

HAK

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I cannot be sure sir as I owe lots to several companies and I've had several companies chasing the same debt on more than one occasion. It's a job to know who I owe the money to, that's why I requested the appropiate paperwork.

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How about 'Respectfully Sir, the claimant is asking the court to enforce a credit agreement. The issue is not whether money is owed, but whether a credit agreement is actually enforceable. The claimant is unable to produce the credit agreement, therefore how can the court be sure that should such an agreement exist it was drawn up in accordance with the Consumer Credit Act.'

 

Or modify it if they produce an unenforceable agreement: 'Respectfully Sir, the claimant is asking the court to enforce a credit agreement. The issue is not whether money is owed, but whether a credit agreement is actually enforceable. The claimant has produced an agreement which is clearly not drawn up in accordance with the Consumer Credit Act and I ask the court to consider this when passing judgement.'

 

I've not actually been to court but do people think these are reasonable statements?

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Morally Yes I probably do, however I only owe this to the original creditor, who then failed in their duties to ensure the credit agreement they are now relying on is valid under Consumer Law, so in hindsight No I do not owe the money

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There is also another angle to this in most credit card cases:

 

Whilst you might have spent money advanced to you, you have been making payments over the years. One exceeds the other but, more often than not, it will be what you have repaid that exceeds the amount advanced rather than the other way around.

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hiya great thread HAK

 

am subbing,,,,

 

i like 42man responce,,,,as at the end of the day, showing precedent must outweigh any moral obligation far more in my humble opinion.....as that is the law we all seek to follow.....

 

laters dudes

 

angel x

Im happy to help with support and my own thoughts, but if I offer any thoughts to your problems please take it as from my life experience only and not of any legal standing. Always take further advice from the legal experts in your final action.:)

 

my new motto is,,,",Taking back control of your life and home - such peace is priceless"

 

This is all due to truecall device , have a serious peek at this you will be thankful like I am x laters angel :D

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I found this reply I had on my PC from ages ago:

 

I would have bluntly answered " I had a card with them, but it's so long ago i don't have my original copy of the agreement. the creditors company recommended people keep original paperwork for 6 months. Further, the Money Laundering Regs make it a serious criminal offence punishable by 10 years in prison for each director of the company, for the claimant not to keep this paperwork, so I believe that they must have a copy of the agreement.

 

I've asked them for a copy of the agreement on 4 occasions, and made it clear to the claimant I would settle with them when I saw that agreement. Until I can see what I actually signed up for, i honestly don't know how much I am liable for, if anything."

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My answer would be.....

 

The me owing money issue doesn't come into it. However for the DCA to legally ask me to pay them any sum of money depends on the lawful enforceability of the agreement they claim gives them the right to demand money from me. And this is the reason why we're all here today.

My defence points to missing terms, etc, that render the application form/"agreement" unenforceable, even in a court of law.

By the end, I should imagine that any money payable will actually be from the DCA to me, for my costs to have to defend a claim they had no hope of winning in the first place.

 

To the DCA representaive....

 

Mr Gingerbread man is going to get you at playtime. :D

These are video links to show how I deal with Debt Collectors.

 

Fly fishing for C.A.R.S

http://uk.youtube.com/watch?v=zPtzK8FqE6k&feature=related

 

Frederickson International don't accept my card type

http://uk.youtube.com/watch?v=eiZBULlWW6Q&feature=related

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In the event of no CCA, one could say that in equity all capital borrowed has been repaid.

 

With no CCA, there is no proof that you ever agreed to pay interest, which is what the alleged debt consists of.

 

Get your statements, add up all you borrowed, add up all youve paid. If youve repaid more than you've borrowed, then all that is left is interest and charges.

 

If they have no agreement, then they have no proof that you ever agreed to pay interest.

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Subscribing, one guest ......mmmm i thought there would be more:p

 

Hope its not the Judge Club:eek:

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From a few cases I have seen here , the judge seems to hold the opinion , that if you do owe the money ..regardless of a CCA or a DN not in order et all, then he will rule for the creditor , regardless of your defence . So , I would say , No .. your honour , I do not owe the money .

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