Hi all, I'm brand new to this forum & wondered if RBS Advanta still exist? I have a credit card contract signed with RBS Advanta - and this seems to be MINT now? Is the RBS Advanta credit card contract a valid contract still? I'm being taken to court by the Royal Bank of Scotland over a credit card loan, which I signed for with RBS Advanta for £3,500 back in 2003, but they kept on increasing this, without my permission or requests, to over £9,000, and now I'm unemployed I cannot afford to repay this, and they are taking me to court when I have no money? Can they do this when only £3,500 signed for? Also, signed with RBS Advanta (not MINT)? Any help here would be greatly received, feeling desperate, thank you. Round table.

In helping a friend to deal with her debt problems, I wrote to her creditors requesting copies of Consumer Credit Agreements. Tesco responded with a photocopy of a signed agreement for an account that is in default and being (slowly) paid under a DMP. I have read posts on here about checking the validity of agreement (interest rates, minimum payments, etc) but much of the information seems very dated. So, my question is: 'Is there any advantage in checking the validity of a credit card CCAs now and, if so, does anyone have a link or advice to help me in making the check?' I ask because I am trying to achieve an affordable F&F for her. Thanks

Hi everyone. On reaching the train station today I found myself stuck in a queue. I was running late and had to be at an appointment and so when the train arrived 30 seconds after joining the queue, I decided I would buy a ticket from the conductor. (as I and many others have done previously). Unfortunately, there was no conductor on the train and so on alighting the train, I queued again to buy a ticket at the pay stand which has been present for as long as I can remember. I was refused a ticket and instead was ushered to a waiting revenues officer. I explained the situation regarding the queue at the start of my journey and also that there was no conductor on the train and that was the reason for me queueing to buy a ticket at the destination station. The revenues officer went on to baffle me with, section this and bye-laws tha,t which i had no idea about. He also told me that there are A-boards in stations which set out a passenger's obligations (which, again I had no idea about). The officer then asked me for my details, (which I refused to do as I felt I wasn't dodging a fare and I was trying to pay my fare). Due to my refusal, he then brought a police officer who said if I didn't give my details, he would arrest me for travel fraud!! Of course, by then I obviously had no choice and so gave my details. When I travelled back to the first station (with a valid ticket) I looked for an A-board setting out my obligations as a passenger. I found a red A-board up against a red vending machine! All the information says is "Buy before you ride" and that travelling without a valid ticket is an offence which COULD get you a criminal record, a £1000 fine or imprisonment. My return journey fare should have been £3.10 but because I wasn't able to buy my ticket, I had to buy a single to get back home which was £3.00. I was told by the revenues officer that I would be charged the single journey fare of £3.30 which would be payable when I receive notice to pay. That means that my journey would've cost me £6.30 instead of the £3.10!!...Would I only have to pay the 30p difference and will they charge me any admin fee? Thanks for taking the time to read this Loooooong thread, any advice greatly appreciated.

1st time post and looking for advice. I parked in the council car park last sunday, purchased a parking ticked and placed on the dashboard of my car. I returned a couple of hours later to see a penalty charge notice issued by the council (it appears to be completed correctly). On checking my parking ticket I realised that it must have flipped over when I placed it on the dash or whilst closing the door. So the ticket has been issued correctly but as I had a valid ticket to park do I have grounds to appeal? many thanks

Hi folks I'm new here - so go easy. My Mrs took out a logbook loan from LBL against her car in May and fell behind on payments when she went of on maternity leave. I tried to help, but it was too late and they issued a default notice. I called them recently and they told me the car was up for repossession and give me the phone number of the agent. I called him (a lovely bloke, snigger snigger) and he filled my head with a lot of rubbish about how the car will be registered as stolen and how insurance is void. From what I've read on this site - that's not the case. Anyway - the car has been off the road due to repairs and hasn't been at the address we got the loan at. Incidently - my wife signed up for the loan in her parents home with an agent, I've read some comments on here about this being a problem, but can't really get a definitive answer on it. Comments please? We are now in a better position and are able to bring the arrears up to date (around £900) and make the weekly payments comfortably. Today I have sent a recorded letter to them to advise them of same and asked for them to confirm their acceptance and bank details by return. From your experiences - are they likely to cause a problem with this offer? I also called the High Court today and they advised me that the BOS was registered correctly, so really I'm just wondering now what I need to look for to render the BOS void? Is there anything that I should look for? I've searched and read around this forum a lot and there's lots of good advice, but any help is greatly appreciated. We always pay our debt, not matter how expensive it is and will continue to pay LBL, but I wouldn't mind releasing her car as security. Thanks folks - great forum by the way. Dave

Hi everyone, I wonder if you can help me. I wrote to RBS about mis sold PPI on an old, paid up loan, they sent a letter back asking why I thought it had been mis sold. I wrote back saying that as the loan was secured on my property (they had a legal charge on it) why would I need PPI aswell. They replied saying that it was not a valid reason. Any thoughts on this please.

Hi all PPI came into a conversation between my Dad and I last night and he mentioned that he has been paying it to MBNA for years. My dad is and always has been self employed as far as I can remember back. He has given me all of his statements since 2002 and he has been paying between £10-£40 per month in PPi since and still is to date and has asked me to deal with his claim for him. Will he hae a valid claim because he is self employed or is there a possibility that the policy may have covered him? Am I able to claim on his behalf or will MBNA need to write to my dad directly? Also I have sat this afternoon and have entered all of the figures from his statements onto one of the spreadsheets on here and it totals £5K but I am unsure about the interest calculations...what interest may he possible be due? Im confused about compound/8% interest etc? Many Thanks Claire

I received a fine this morning for not displaying a valid tax disc. My tax ran out last month and I renewed it online (a week later than I should have, but payment was backdated). I didn't receive the new tax disc in the post in the 2 weeks after I renewed, unfortunately I have since moved address and honestly the fact I hadn't got the tax disc completely slipped my mind, what with the stresses of moving to a new area and starting a new job. I fully accept that I wasn't displaying a tax disc and so probably should have got the fine, but I was wondering if anyone else has had similar circumstances and contested it? I should have had the tax disc in the post within 5 days but they didn't send it, and I haven't had anything re-directed in the post- so possibility they never sent it, or it got lost in the post, or have I left it too late to go down that route? Thanks for your help!

My partner flew out to Africa and 2 days later a letter arrived which to me looked suspicious. I opened it and found that it was from TIL saying that they have noted his comments about failing to show a valid ticket, there were pre-paid facilities available as that the Rail compnay have advised they see no reason not to pursue. Says "an application for a Summons may now be made" but as there are no instances on his file, they are "authorised to allow a final opportunity of an administrative settlement as an alternative disposal in this case". The letter says 10 days to pay and if that if you do you accept a wriiten warning. I remember him telling me that he travels on the train daily due to a disability and that he always pays for his ticket via the conductor on the train. We both do as where we live it is 'normal' to do so and staff at the station say not to use the machine as it steals cards and money! However he was near Cardiff, rather than in West Wales. The fare was £1.50, he had the money in his hand and waited for the conductor, then looked for him and no-one was around. As he got off the train and went to pay, the people said he was unlucky and they were doing a revenue generating activity. Apparently there was a ticket machine across the bridge on the other platform at his starting station that he should have used. The man said to wait for the letter, reply with what my partner had told him and the matter would be dropped. My partner said in his letter that he would be away in Africa for 2 months and that if TIL wanted to pursue further could they do so at the end of August on his return. He felt very embarassed about it as he was not intending to fare dodge. I am really upset as I don't know what to do as he is out of the country and I cannot contact him. All I've had was a quick phonecall the day he arrived to say there had been a landslide killing 100 people and he was going to see how he could help- it has been in the news. A) Can/should he fight this? £70 is a lot for a £1.50 fare B) What do I do about the fine as he is not here? He would not want it to go to Court

Hi all This is my first post in this forum even though I have spent many hours browsing through the very informative posts since getting into this PDL mess! A lot of the info has definitely been very calming and reassuring after receiving a lot of the standard bullying tactics that some of these companies employ!! Anyway.......to cut a ridiculously long story short, I have a few questions regarding a CCA request I made to Next Credit last week. Basically I have had 3 previous loans with this PDL (all paid off). After the initial loan it is possible to apply for the next loan by SMS. First you send a text containing the word LOAN followed by your surname. The next text you send is for the loan amount.....and that's it. From sending the first text to the money being in your account takes less than 5 minutes (that seems like a very short time to do all the neccesary credit and affordability checks to me). So since then I have missed the payment deadlines, had all the warning texts and emails from NC, been passed onto Northern Debt Recovery and now Marshall Hoares. I understand that all these companies are connected and their ridiculous charges are completely unjustifiable (Inital loan £400, now balance is at £1255). Back to the CCA request. I had a response from someone at NC in the form of an email containing a copy of the terms and conditions of the original agreement and a screenshot of the breakdown of charges on the account. The T&C's state a loan amount of £300 even though the loan was for £400. I also can't find any date on there except at the bottom which says 20/1/11 which is well over 12 months before I took this loan out! The bottom of the agreement also reads: "Having entered your email address twice during the application process and submitted your application, you confirmed that you have read and agree to the terms of this Agreement." (Oops, looks this this short story turned into a long one!) So here are my questions: 1. Having only sent 2 text messages, one containing my surname during the application process, does that count as a signature? I never "double signed" anything regarding to this agreement. 2. What do you make of the mistakes in the agreement (the loan amount being wrong and the date being from over 12 months in the past)? It seems silly to me to send a legally binding document peppered with mistakes 3. Does this satisfy a CCA request? I'm pretty sure it doesn't but I wanted to be sure before I ask for it again. 4. Apart from complaining to the relevant authorities what should my next move be? Ignore it? Make token payments? Any and all advice is greatly appreciated Cheers, Matt 2.

i have entered a domestic tenancy agreement but the landlord as not told he's mortgage company that he is renting the property out, it states in the agreement that to enter the said agreement he must be the sole owner or have a letter in writting from the mortgage company that he as permission to rent it out,,, it is not a buy-to-let mortgage,,,,he is also not paying hes mortgage!!! is the agreement valid as the landlord is in breach of contract, and that he knowingly entered the said agreement without telling the mortgage company,,, cheers

On 04/06/2012at 10:24 I was issued a Penalty Charge Notice (PCN), At the time in question I had gone for change to pay, and it being a bankholiday took a few minutes to get to the hospital shop to get change; I wasunable to pay by phone having lost my mobile the previous weekend. Whilst I acceptthe ‘gone for change excuse’ is not a significant defence in itself andprobably one heard repeatedly, I was less than five minutes beforereturning to the car and would ask if any clemency could be provided on thisbasis? An additional concern I have isthat the Parking Control Zone (PCZ) is not valid due to incomplete signage. Ibelieve to be a PCZ all roads mustbe provided with parking places or be marked with road markings to 1017, 1018.11019 or 1020.1 (single yellow lines, double yellow lines, single kerb markingsor double kerb markings) and that there should be entry plates at every point to the zone. A quick walkaround the zone shows that the signage is incomplete at more than one point,meaning that the enforceable stage of the PCZ is questionable. Thirdly, I had a question aboutthe markings of the bay in question. The Traffic Signs Regulations and GeneralDirections (TSRGD) lay out the precise method of marking bays on the road and Iam not sure which of this Regulations this bay is supposed to be compliant withas it appears to be in line with 1028 and 1032 and appears the bay meetsneither of these standards entirely. The ends of the bay are clearly marked asif for individual bays to standard 1032, but the sides or the bay are marked asstandard 1028. Additionally, whenmeasured, the markings do not seem to comply with the measurements proscribedwithin the TSRGD, however as I am not able to determine the actual regulationthe bays are supposed to be compliant with I may be in error. I have included asketch below with the measurements of the TSRGD and the measurements I took ofthe bay, and have highlighted which lines may not be to code.