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    • An update to this case as I’ve not been on in a while.    I am still awaiting a charging decision in the case. The two police officers involved have said their personal belief is a section 47 ABH charge is the most likely outcome but this isn’t a sure thing of course.    The EA certificate from the issuing court has now lapsed. The court have refused to recertify him until they’ve had a hearing in to the case, and the district judge has issued orders to surrender all evidence, footage, photos etc.    I have done so promptly.    the EA, not so much . Equita have claimed they cannot provide his bodycam footage as the camera he was wearing is the EA personal one not one of theirs.   the EA has claimed he has asked Equita and the police for the footage as he claims he doesn’t have it.    the police have confirmed they didn’t seize his camera and they don’t have it.    so they are basically pointing the finger at each other all the while failing to comply with the district judges order to provide all evidence they intend to rely on at the rescheduled hearing.    The district judge has stated the hearing for his certification will NOT be the hearing for my complaint as there is no charge as of yet, and just as to whether he should be recertified or not.    I’m not 100% on why that can’t be done at the time, but I’m not about to question a judge…..      
    • Thanks FTMDave, I like the cut of your jib - I'll go with that and obtain proof of postage. Encouraging that NPE have never followed through and seem to blowing hot air, let's see where they go after this   Regards
    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
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Being forced to get business insurance for vehicle


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My daughter is NOT self-employed but works for a company that requires her to meet clients within the region she works in.

 

Her contract does not state that she had to have a car but she has been told that she must use her car to go meet clients. Fair enough.

 

When she went to claim her fuel expenses they refused because they said she needs business insurance on her vehicle and once she produces a certificate to prove this they will then pay for the fuels at 45p per mile. W

 

Why should she have to pay for business insurance, it is not her business.

She has said she would be happy to get it insured for business and then claim it back from the company but they say they wont pay it.

She likes the job and does not want to leave but as I say this was not written in her contract. Others within the company have forked out for business insurance just to get peace but my daughter is taking a stand on this.

 

Where does she stand legally?

 

Any help or advice is much appreciated.

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Because she is travelling to other places and not one permanent place of employment.

Its pretty standard.

 

I have to have business insurance as sometimes my place of work Is not always the main building.

It cost me £15 extra per year.

Just explain to insurance company that its for commuting to clients addresses.

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Moved to motor insurance forum

 

Same as pizza delivery

You are using your vehicle to make you money

Must have business ins

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

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If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Because she is travelling to other places and not one permanent place of employment.

Its pretty standard.

 

I have to have business insurance as sometimes my place of work Is not always the main building.

It cost me £15 extra per year.

Just explain to insurance company that its for commuting to clients addresses.

 

Ok thank you, I will pass this info on to my daughter. Thanks for the help

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Be aware that some domestic insurance policies exclude commuting to work. Hire and reward exclusion is also quite common on most policies, and this would generally prevent anyone using their car for business use unless specifically stated.

 

Always read the small print, and if in doubt, get written conformation from the insurers.

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Be aware that some domestic insurance policies exclude commuting to work. Hire and reward exclusion is also quite common on most policies, and this would generally prevent anyone using their car for business use unless specifically stated.

 

Always read the small print, and if in doubt, get written conformation from the insurers.

 

Ok will do I will pass this on to my daughter thank you for your valuable input

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Be aware that some domestic insurance policies exclude commuting to work. Hire and reward exclusion is also quite common on most policies, and this would generally prevent anyone using their car for business use unless specifically stated.

 

Always read the small print, and if in doubt, get written conformation from the insurers.

 

 

Yes always explain to insurers what you are using the car for so that they give you the correct cover.

Otherwise your daughter could be prosecuted for driving without insurance and all the serious consequences that could result from that.

 

Every insurer has their own wordings but generally what you [OP] describe is what's called personal business use.

It isn't hire and reward though.

 

Hire and reward is use as a taxi or minicab or courier, where someone pays you to take them or their goods somewhere.

It's normal for employers to insist that an employee using their own car on business has the correct insurance before reimbursing them the mileage.

 

Your daughter's argument that it isn't her business will get her nowhere and isn't worth raising.

Firstly it is her business, at least in the sense that she's an employee of the business and paid to do the job and doing the job requires her to drive to visit clients. And the employer would also no doubt argue that the mileage reimbursed includes reimbursement of the cost of buying business insurance.

 

If having your own car wasn't a requirement of the job I wonder what they would have said if your daughter had replied "I don't have a car"? Or "Yes I have a car but my partner uses it for work so it isn't available to me during the day"?

 

Legally she is fully entitled to say 'I didn't know I had to drive my own car and I'm not going to do that'. The, equally legal, result of that is she will be sacked.

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Otherwise your daughter could be prosecuted for driving without insurance and all the serious consequences that could result from that.

 

In this scenario, it would not be driving without insurance and the vehicle should not be seized under those circumstances. If it was, there would be grounds for a complaint for wrongful seizure. There is a policy of insurance in place, it would just be the wrong type of cover and that would be a matter between the insurance company and the driver.

 

In the event of an incident while using the vehicle for business use, the insurers would have a statutory obligation to cover/pay out on the 3rd party risks and they can't avoid that (Road Traffic Act sections 143-162) but they'd be falling over themselves to not pay out on any damages to the insured parties vehicle, and most certainly wouldn't be.

 

 

But that's a separate issue to the company requiring that their employees have business use insurance in order to claim expenses. I'd say that that was fairly legitimate, and it doesn't cost a great deal of money. I think the last time I added business cover to my SDP policy, it cost me about £20 extra for the year.

Please note that my posts are my opinion only and should not be taken as any kind of legal advice.
In fact, they're probably just waffling and can be quite safely and completely ignored as you wish.

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If having your own car wasn't a requirement of the job I wonder what they would have said if your daughter had replied "I don't have a car"? Or "Yes I have a car but my partner uses it for work so it isn't available to me during the day"?

 

I used to work for a company that provided a couple of transit vans. From time to time, I was instructed to take one out to collect something. A task i would always refuse on the grounds that their insurance wouldn't cover me.

 

Although I had a full motorcycle licence, they never thought to ask if I also had a full manual car licence :madgrin:

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In this scenario, it would not be driving without insurance and the vehicle should not be seized under those circumstances. If it was, there would be grounds for a complaint for wrongful seizure. There is a policy of insurance in place, it would just be the wrong type of cover and that would be a matter between the insurance company and the driver.

.

 

Not so I'm afraid. The insurance must cover the use you are making of the vehicle. That's why 'Use' is one of the statutory sections of the Certificate of Motor Insurance.

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I'm not saying (and did not say) that vehicles aren't ever seized under those circumstances. But the seizure would be on shaky ground.

 

The requirements, as set out in Section 143 of the Road Traffic Act 1988. (Paraphrasing) say that a vehicle must be insured against third party risks for it to be on the road.

 

Any motor vehicle insurance policy, no matter what the level of cover, must (and this cannot be avoided by the insurance company (RTA Section 148)) indemnify a third party no matter what! Which is why, for instance, insurers have to pay a third party claim against a drink driver, even if they wouldn't insure the said drink driver against their own losses. Otherwise, drink drivers would also be charged with driving with no insurance.

 

 

Therefore... Joe bloggs delivering Pizza on his moped with third party F&T which is insured for SDP only DOES have insurance, but it's the wrong level of cover, so the vehicle should not be seized for no insurance.

 

 

This is what should happen according to MIB. (No, not Will Smith :lol:)

 

https://www.mib.org.uk/media-centre/news/2017/october/is-your-motor-insurance-keeping-you-on-the-right-side-of-the-law/

 

Items 2 & 3 on that list.

 

If a vehicle is stopped with the wrong class of insurance, although the vehicle would be insured against third party risks, which is the minimum legal requirement, a report would be submitted to the policyholders insurance company, who will then be after the policyholder for either extra premium to add the correct class(es) of insurance, or they could cancel the policy from inception.

 

It would need to be a serious breach of the insurance terms for a seizure to be legitimately made and to stand up if challenged.

Please note that my posts are my opinion only and should not be taken as any kind of legal advice.
In fact, they're probably just waffling and can be quite safely and completely ignored as you wish.

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Why would a seizure be on shakey grounds

 

If you are using your car to say deliver a pizza and you get stopped by the police and are found to not have the correct insurance, If they allow you to drive on after the stop, You still have the pizza in the car and so are still driving without the correct cover

 

There are plenty of instances including here on CAG where cars are taken for business use without a business policy

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This is what should happen according to MIB. (No, not Will Smith :lol:)

 

https://www.mib.org.uk/media-centre/news/2017/october/is-your-motor-insurance-keeping-you-on-the-right-side-of-the-law/

 

Items 2 & 3 on that list.

 

If a vehicle is stopped with the wrong class of insurance, although the vehicle would be insured against third party risks, which is the minimum legal requirement, a report would be submitted to the policyholders insurance company, who will then be after the policyholder for either extra premium to add the correct class(es) of insurance, or they could cancel the policy from inception.

 

It would need to be a serious breach of the insurance terms for a seizure to be legitimately made and to stand up if challenged.

 

I cannot find that last sentence (highlighted in bold) on the MIB webpage. Where does it appear there?

 

This sentence does appear though (my bold added):

 

"What MIB sees: Approximately 200 calls per month made to the MIB Police Helpline relate to ‘class of use’. In many of these cases, the insurance policy did not include ‘business’ use and
the driver was on the wrong side of the law
."

 

 

MIB confirms what I posted earlier, driving outside the permitted class of use is illegal - "on the wrong side of the law" - so all the consequences of driving without insurance can follow, including seizure of the vehicle, and your conclusion that pizza delivery bikes without business insurance cannot be seized is wrong. OP's daughter likewise could have her car seized. Whether that would actually happen is, as always, at the discretion of the police officer at the time.

 

 

You have confused s148 with s151. When I was my company's motor insurance technical director it was one of areas most commonly confused by insurance trainees. s148 deals with circumstances where the policy holder has breached any of the policy clauses listed in s148 (2) . Driving outside the permitted classes of use is not one of those. A s148 payment is made under the contract of insurance and so would not normally make the insured liable to prosecution for driving without insurance although they could still be liable to reimburse the insurer for claims paid to third parties. s151 deals with payments the insurer has to make to third parties when there is a more fundamental breach of the policy, such as driving outside permitted class of use, which would allow the insurer to avoid the policy. Payments under s151 are not made under the policy (unless the insurer has waived or prejudiced their right to avoid the policy) but under a statutory duty. The making of a s151 payment to third parties does not mean that the insured is thereby covered by a policy of insurance so they are liable to prosecution and vehicle seizure even if the third party has had their judgement satisfied. s151 (and s148 for that matter) are intended to make sure that innocent third parties are compensated not to provide a shield to policyholders against a prosecution for driving without insurance.

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You're correct. I did confuse 148 with 151. Both are about avoidance of indemnity though, and I'm a little rusty :lol:

 

As for the sentence you've highlighted. I was paraphrasing. But here it is as it appears on the MIB website.

 

A serious breach of the insurance policy terms could result in the police seizing the vehicle.

 

Note the words "Serious breach" and "could".

 

 

So..

 

Is having the wrong class of insurance a "serious breach"?

 

I'd say that that is subjective and largely depends on the circumstances. Someone with SDP+C that is using their vehicle to get to a work site other than their main one, I'd say not serious at all. So a fine & points issued and a vehicle seizure under those circumstances may not stand if challenged.

 

Someone with SDP only using a vehicle for business... Slightly more serious, depending on the actual use. I'm still not entirely convinced that it's serious enough for a, eFPN and seizure though. At the moment of the stop, they are insured for third party risks after all, which is all that the law requires.

 

 

 

Ultimately, each police officer is going to have their own ideas over what is a correct course of action in any particular circumstance, and each officer has to stand by and, if necessary, justify their actions/thought process. So where some would issue an eFPN and seize the vehicle, others would not.

 

I feel that those that do would be open to challenge as to whether or not the eFPN and seizure was justified. Whether someone would win or lose that challenge would again depend on opinion, this time of a Magistrate.

Please note that my posts are my opinion only and should not be taken as any kind of legal advice.
In fact, they're probably just waffling and can be quite safely and completely ignored as you wish.

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I'm not saying (and did not say) that vehicles aren't ever seized under those circumstances. But the seizure would be on shaky ground.

 

The requirements, as set out in Section 143 of the Road Traffic Act 1988. (Paraphrasing) say that a vehicle must be insured against third party risks for it to be on the road.

 

Any motor vehicle insurance policy, no matter what the level of cover, must (and this cannot be avoided by the insurance company (RTA Section 148)) indemnify a third party no matter what! Which is why, for instance, insurers have to pay a third party claim against a drink driver, even if they wouldn't insure the said drink driver against their own losses. Otherwise, drink drivers would also be charged with driving with no insurance.

 

 

Therefore... Joe bloggs delivering Pizza on his moped with third party F&T which is insured for SDP only DOES have insurance, but it's the wrong level of cover, so the vehicle should not be seized for no insurance.

 

 

This is what should happen according to MIB. (No, not Will Smith :lol:)

 

https://www.mib.org.uk/media-centre/news/2017/october/is-your-motor-insurance-keeping-you-on-the-right-side-of-the-law/

 

Items 2 & 3 on that list.

 

If a vehicle is stopped with the wrong class of insurance, although the vehicle would be insured against third party risks, which is the minimum legal requirement, a report would be submitted to the policyholders insurance company, who will then be after the policyholder for either extra premium to add the correct class(es) of insurance, or they could cancel the policy from inception.

 

It would need to be a serious breach of the insurance terms for a seizure to be legitimately made and to stand up if challenged.

 

It is incredibly difficult for an Insurer to cancel the policy from inception (For obvious reasons), to be able to do this the Insurer needs to prove serious intent to defraud them. The policy would then be voided "Ab Initio"

 

Voiding a policy in such a way was very very rare in the past, it is even more rare now as thanks to the Insurance Derrgulation Act voiding the policy in such a way (Still) leaves the Insurer potentially liable for claims. The common way since the recent introduction of the Act is to cancel the policy giving seven days notice in writing.

 

This is a complex area and their is a High Court Case setting precident where a Taxi driver appealed against a no insurance conviction by claiming his private use policy provided cover under the RTA even though he did not have taxi cover. The court ruled against him.

 

I can never find this case, but if someone wants to spend time searching the web it is there, the drivers name was Ahmed or along those lines

 

The EU have been trying to ensure that third parties are covered either by the RTA or the MIB eg section 75 Insurer by trying to fill in any gaps. There are fairly recent (European) court cases where the court have ruled that "Any use" makes the Insurer liable under MIB (When not an RTA liability). The court was not ruling on use as in the topic but on another matter but they are trying their best to eleminate any situations where a case may not be covered by the RTA or the MIB.

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I'm glad the High Court ruled against the Taxi driver. Driving a Taxi on a 'domestic' policy is extracting the yellow liquid. Taxi insurance costs a lot of money. I've met people that have been paying in excess of £2,000 a year for insurance when you take in to account the public liability aspect of it as well.

 

So trying to claim that your Taxi is covered on your SDP policy is a prime example of a "serious breach" of the insurance.

Please note that my posts are my opinion only and should not be taken as any kind of legal advice.
In fact, they're probably just waffling and can be quite safely and completely ignored as you wish.

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I'm glad the High Court ruled against the Taxi driver. Driving a Taxi on a 'domestic' policy is extracting the yellow liquid. Taxi insurance costs a lot of money. I've met people that have been paying in excess of £2,000 a year for insurance when you take in to account the public liability aspect of it as well.

 

So trying to claim that your Taxi is covered on your SDP policy is a prime example of a "serious breach" of the insurance.

 

Yes indeed, and that case (I don't know its citation either) illustrates what's already been said - the rights to compensation given to innocent third parties under RTA s151 or MIB aren't intended to protect the driver/policyholder against being convicted of driving without insurance.

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