Jump to content


  • Tweets

  • Posts

    • Thank-you dx, What you have written is certainly helpful to my understanding. The only thing I would say, what I found to be most worrying and led me to start this discussion is, I believe the judge did not merely admonish the defendant in the case in question, but used that point to dismiss the case in the claimants favour. To me, and I don't have your experience or knowledge, that is somewhat troubling. Again, the caveat being that we don't know exactly what went on but I think we can infer the reason for the judgement. Thank-you for your feedback. EDIT: I guess that the case I refer to is only one case and it may never happen again and the strategy not to appeal is still the best strategy even in this event, but I really did find the outcome of that case, not only extremely annoying but also worrying. Let's hope other judges are not quite so narrow minded and don't get fixated on one particular issue as FTMDave alluded to.
    • Indians, traditionally known as avid savers, are now stashing away less money and borrowing more.View the full article
    • the claimant in their WS can refer to whatever previous CC judgements they like, as we do in our WS's, but CC judgements do not set a legal precedence. however, they do often refer to judgements like Bevis, those cases do created a precedence as they were court of appeal rulings. as for if the defendant, prior to the raising of a claim, dobbed themselves in as the driver in writing during any appeal to the PPC, i don't think we've seen one case whereby the claimant referred to such in their WS.. ?? but they certainly typically include said appeal letters in their exhibits. i certainly dont think it's a good idea to 'remind' them of such at the defence stage, even if the defendant did admit such in a written appeal. i would further go as far to say, that could be even more damaging to the whole case than a judge admonishing a defendant for not appealing to the PPC in the 1st place. it sort of blows the defendant out the water before the judge reads anything else. dx  
    • Hi LFI, Your knowledge in this area is greater than I could possibly hope to have and as such I appreciate your feedback. I'm not sure that I agree the reason why a barrister would say that, only to get new customers, I'm sure he must have had professional experience in this area that qualifies him to make that point. 🙂 In your point 1 you mention: 1] there is a real danger that some part of the appeal will point out that the person appealing [the keeper ] is also the driver. I understand the point you are making but I was referring to when the keeper is also the driver and admits it later and only in this circumstance, but I understand what you are saying. I take on board the issues you raise in point 2. Is it possible that a PPC (claimant) could refer back to the case above as proof that the motorist should have appealed, like they refer back to other cases? Thanks once again for the feedback.
    • Well barristers would say that in the hope that motorists would go to them for advice -obviously paid advice.  The problem with appealing is at least twofold. 1] there is a real danger that some part of the appeal will point out that the person appealing [the keeper ] is also the driver.  And in a lot of cases the last thing the keeper wants when they are also the driver is that the parking company knows that. It makes it so much easier for them as the majority  of Judges do not accept that the keeper and the driver are the same person for obvious reasons. Often they are not the same person especially when it is a family car where the husband, wife and children are all insured to drive the same car. On top of that  just about every person who has a valid insurance policy is able to drive another person's vehicle. So there are many possibilities and it should be up to the parking company to prove it to some extent.  Most parking company's do not accept appeals under virtually any circumstances. But insist that you carry on and appeal to their so called impartial jury who are often anything but impartial. By turning down that second appeal, many motorists pay up because they don't know enough about PoFA to argue with those decisions which brings us to the second problem. 2] the major parking companies are mostly unscrupulous, lying cheating scrotes. So when you appeal and your reasons look as if they would have merit in Court, they then go about  concocting a Witness Statement to debunk that challenge. We feel that by leaving what we think are the strongest arguments to our Member's Witness Statements, it leaves insufficient time to be thwarted with their lies etc. And when the motorists defence is good enough to win, it should win regardless of when it is first produced.   
  • Recommended Topics

  • Our picks

    • If you are buying a used car – you need to read this survival guide.
      • 1 reply
    • Hello,

      On 15/1/24 booked appointment with Big Motoring World (BMW) to view a mini on 17/1/24 at 8pm at their Enfield dealership.  

      Car was dirty and test drive was two circuits of roundabout on entry to the showroom.  Was p/x my car and rushed by sales exec and a manager into buying the mini and a 3yr warranty that night, sale all wrapped up by 10pm.  They strongly advised me taking warranty out on car that age (2017) and confirmed it was honoured at over 500 UK registered garages.

      The next day, 18/1/24 noticed amber engine warning light on dashboard , immediately phoned BMW aftercare team to ask for it to be investigated asap at nearest garage to me. After 15 mins on hold was told only their 5 service centres across the UK can deal with car issues with earliest date for inspection in March ! Said I’m not happy with that given what sales team advised or driving car. Told an amber warning light only advisory so to drive with caution and call back when light goes red.

      I’m not happy to do this, drive the car or with the after care experience (a sign of further stresses to come) so want a refund and to return the car asap.

      Please can you advise what I need to do today to get this done. 
       

      Many thanks 
      • 81 replies
    • Housing Association property flooding. https://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/topic/438641-housing-association-property-flooding/&do=findComment&comment=5124299
      • 161 replies
    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

      Please note that a recent case against UPS failed on exactly the same issue with the judge held that the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 did not apply.

      We will be getting that transcript very soon. We will look at it and we will understand how the judge made such catastrophic mistakes. It was a very poor judgement.
      We will be recommending that people do include this adverse judgement in their bundle so that when they go to county court the judge will see both sides and see the arguments against this adverse judgement.
      Also, we will be to demonstrate to the judge that we are fair-minded and that we don't mind bringing everything to the attention of the judge even if it is against our own interests.
      This is good ethical practice.

      It would be very nice if the parcel delivery companies – including EVRi – practised this kind of thing as well.

       

      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
        • Like
  • Recommended Topics

style="text-align: center;">  

Thread Locked

because no one has posted on it for the last 2377 days.

If you need to add something to this thread then

 

Please click the "Report " link

 

at the bottom of one of the posts.

 

If you want to post a new story then

Please

Start your own new thread

That way you will attract more attention to your story and get more visitors and more help 

 

Thanks

Recommended Posts

Concerning the issue of whether we are a casual worker or a an employee there is many criteria to consider for example the time we work for the employer, our skills, whether he employs us only in case of shortage or during peak time or he uses us in the normal running of our business...etc.

 

 

However I would like to know if the conclusive evidence is not when the P45 has been issued because if it has been issued one year after the start of employment this means that we are now an employee.

 

It is up to the employer to decide if he need us anymore or nor and as a consequence if he send us our P45 or not. If the employer decides because it is not convenient for him not to issue a P45 at the end of each project we could be consider as an employee

 

There is also the issue of HMRC and in order the employer not to pay tax maybe a worker has to work only for a small period of time and not come back for a long time

 

There is also the issue of the difference between temporary employee and a casual worker

Link to post
Share on other sites

  • Replies 264
  • Created
  • Last Reply

Top Posters In This Topic

Top Posters In This Topic

The issue is if we have worked for an employer doing projects and we are dismissed after one year and the employer says that we are not entitled to claim unfair dismissal because we were workers because from time to time there were gaps of two or three weeks between the projects and as a consequence we were worker and not employee and we cannot have one year continuity service.

 

 

In this case I would like to know if the employee does not send us the P45 at the end of each project but when we were dismissed after one year if this means that we were employees and not workers and entitled to claim unfair dismissal

Link to post
Share on other sites

If you were dismissed after one year you would still not be able to claim Unfair Dismissal (unless for dismissal due to a protected characteristic) as the threshold is now two years.

Any advice given is done so on the assumption that recipients will also take professional advice where appropriate.

 

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING

EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHERS

DONATE HERE

 

If I have been helpful in any way - please feel free to click on the STAR to the left!

 

Link to post
Share on other sites

I have looked in this website but it gives only general information about the difference between employee and casual worker. However my problem is more specific.

 

 

The events to which I refer relates before the law changes so for me it is one-year continuity service.

Link to post
Share on other sites

the law has been changed for a long time - you may be out of time for a claim. when did your employment start?

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

Link to post
Share on other sites

My opinion is that it depends when the P45 is sent to them. If it is sent at the end of each period of work they are workers. However if this is not the case and if the P45 was sent to them after one year (now is two years) they become employee on flexible hours.

The difference is that they would be able to claim unfair dismissal if they are removed from the bank register without any good reason or are dismissed in the middle of a project without any good reasons.

In fact it will depend on the need of the employer. If it is not practicable for the employer to issue a P45 to many people very often and choose not send it after each period of work and not sent it before one year they could be considered as employees. However I am not sure I am right. Otherwise staff could be used for many years nearly as permanent employee without ever obtaining the same rights as employees

Link to post
Share on other sites

  • 2 weeks later...

I would like to know if the 'leaving date' stated in the P45 is the date when the employment relationship ended and could be used to prove that we have enough continuity of service to claim unfair dismissal

 

 

I would like to know which regulation deals with the meaning of the 'leaving date' in the P45

Link to post
Share on other sites

Other documents would take precedence - such as a letter of dismissal or personnel record. A P45 is merely a declaration of pay and tax deducted so these would have to be correct for the tax week stated on the P45. Omissions or errors to a leaving date might have an impact on the tax paid when restarting employment but nothing more.

Any advice given is done so on the assumption that recipients will also take professional advice where appropriate.

 

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING

EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHERS

DONATE HERE

 

If I have been helpful in any way - please feel free to click on the STAR to the left!

 

Link to post
Share on other sites

Lots of variables here. Can you give us more detail on what you are trying to claim and why please? Or we'll be guessing what to tell you :)

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

Link to post
Share on other sites

What happens when there is no letter of dismissal and no record ?

 

 

Moreover in order to be entirely sure I would like to know which act of parliament or regulation deals with this issue

 

If there is no record of dismissal held by the employer, nor a letter advising of dismissal issued to the employee, then this would be open to argument - an employee might argue that a date stated on a legal document such as a P45 could imply that the employer had in his mind a termination date when completing the P45 with that date on it. There might also be implications drawn from a wage slip showing whether an employee was paid to a specific date and for no longer. This might support a date shown on a P45 in an employee's favour, or it might counter that argument and support an employer's assertion that a date on a P45 was indicative merely of the date when the final payroll was run.

 

This is not an issue covered by legislation, but one of contract - in the absence of written information one would draw inferences from documentary evidence or hearsay.

 

The legislation relating to the P45 itself would be Regulation 36 of The Income Tax (Pay As You Earn) Regulations 2003, specifically:-

 

36. (1) On ceasing to employ an employee in respect of whom a code has been issued, the employer must complete Form P45.

 

(2) The employer must then—

 

(a)send Part 1 of that form to the Inland Revenue, and

(b)provide Parts 1A, 2 and 3 to the employee,

on the day on which the employment ceases or, if that is not practicable, without unreasonable delay.

 

(3) Retirement on pension is not a cessation of employment for the purposes of this regulation if the PAYE pension income is paid by the same employer after retirement.

 

(4) The information listed in column 1 of Table 2 must, subject to the conditions set out in column 2, be provided in the various Parts of Form P45 as indicated in columns 3 to 5.

 

 

Information which must be provided in Form P45

 

Information to be provided

 

1. the employer’s PAYE reference

 

2. the employee’s national insurance number

 

3. the employee’s name

 

4. the date on which the employment ceased

 

5. the employee’s code or, if more than one, the latest code, issued by the Inland Revenue for the tax year during which the employment ceased

 

6. whether the employee’s code is used on the cumulative basis

 

7. the tax week or month in which the last relevant payment was made to the employee or, in a case falling within regulation 24, was treated as having been made

 

8. the total payments to date and the corresponding total net tax deducted

 

9. the total payments to date relating to the employment in question and the corresponding total net tax deducted

 

10. the total payments to date relating to the employment in question and the corresponding total net tax deducted

 

11. the number used by the employer to identify the employee

 

12. the department or branch in which the employee was employed

 

13. the employee’s address

 

14. the employer’s name

 

15. the employer’s address

 

16. the date the Form is completed

 

The regulations do nothing more than impose obligations regarding completion of the P45 which would be within the jurisdiction of an ET, but one could form an argument that since the Regulations stipulate that both a 'Leaving' date and a 'Form Completion' date must be entered that an employer must have had it in mind that an employee's leaving date was 'X' at the time the form was completed. It would then be for the employer to explain why that was not the case and whether this was a genuine oversight - the employee's argument would be strengthened if that cannot be adequately explained, particularly if the termination pay was consistent with the leaving date shown on the P45, and the employer's counter-argument would be more plausible if that consistency was not evident and if there was a reasonable explanation for the date error.

Any advice given is done so on the assumption that recipients will also take professional advice where appropriate.

 

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING

EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHERS

DONATE HERE

 

If I have been helpful in any way - please feel free to click on the STAR to the left!

 

Link to post
Share on other sites

I would like to use the ‘leaving date’ on my P45 to prove that I have enough continuity service to make a claim for unfair dismissal

I was suspended but usually suspension is on full pay but I was not paid

 

I have a part time job so I did not work every day

 

The reasons put forward by my employer for not having sent me before a P45 is that he has to wait the end of the payroll period before issuing a P45 and he has to wait that I was paid before issuing a P45.

 

 

The payroll period for the firm ends at the end of the month and the staffs were paid at the beginning of next month

 

My employer put forward also as reason for not having sent a P45 before the fact that 10 days after I was suspended there was the festive period and his office was closed

 

Hence the important question is whether a P45 could be issued only at the end of a payroll period when we are paid and if a P45 can be issued at any time.

 

Another important question is if the ‘leaving date’ is put automatically by the computer in the P45 when it is issued or it is the employer who chooses to put the ‘leaving date’ that he wishes on the P45.

 

 

Moreover there is only one date in the P45 i.e. the ‘leaving date’ because the date when the P45 was issued is not stated in the P45.

Link to post
Share on other sites

Yes and the suspension period ended when I received my P45

 

My question is important because an employer cannot deny that the 'leaving date' in the real date of end of the employment relationship if he has decided himself which leaving date he put in the P45. Unless he says that it was a mistake of his accoutant

Link to post
Share on other sites

The legislation you need is the Employment Rights Act which spells out how the date of the termination of employment is calculated.

 

I'd say the date on your P45 is a good starting point if you have had no dismissal letter. Under ERA you are entitled to have written reasons for the dismissal.

 

Incidentally, the date on the P45 is entered by whoever does the payroll, and is nothing to do with what the compu'er says.

 

Does it match the date you were told you were fired?

Link to post
Share on other sites

  • 2 years later...

I started to work on a ‘zero hours contract’ for a firm to complete a project which was intended to last for seven weeks. There was a probationary period of 30 hours. After I did 43 hours I was told that I cannot carry on with the project and I was removed from the project.

 

Technically because I worked more than 30 hours my probationary period was over when I was removed from the project. However it is possible that my employer nevertheless considers that I have been removed from the project because I have failed my probationary period.

 

My supervisor told me by email that I was removed from the project because I did not do the introduction of work properly and when late I complained I was told also by email that my productivity was not good.

 

However I consider that these reasons did not correspond to the reason stated in the documents given to me by my employer to remove a worker from a project which a worker will be removed from a project if he/she did not follow repeatedly the guidance given to her/him by his/her supervisor or underperform for a significant period in comparison of the other workers on the project for the following reasons

 

• If I did not do the introduction of the work properly it is a question of guidance given by the supervisor to the worker and there is no evidence that I refuse to follow the guidance. Moreover my supervisor did not ask me to correct the way I did the introduction and did not give me any guidance concerning this matter

 

• The introduction of the work does not form part of the project itself.

 

• My supervisor told me also that I could do another project but not a project of this seniority what is not a good reason to remove me from a project according to my employer’s rule

 

• I was told that I underperformed but not that I underperformed in comparison to the other workers in the project. I know that I did not underperform in comparison to the other workers in the project because I know what was the work that the others workers did

 

• My supervisor told me that my productivity was not good because I worked 70 hours even though I work in reality only 40 hours and I had to correct him what is evidence that my productivity was not property assessed by my supervisor.

 

• My employer did not follow its own rules to assess my work.

 

I think that my supervisor did not tell me the real reason why I was removed from the project and that he was looking for an excuse. The reason could be that my employer has phoned to one of my previous employers who told him bad things about me because I issued in the past a claim to the ET against him or it is one of the discriminatory reasons like age, race or disability for example.

 

I am unhappy because I have refused to work for another firm to work for this firm and at the end I have no work at all. I would like to know if I can bring a claim for breach of contract against my employer because ‘zero hours contract’ mean a contract and I would like to know if my employer by not following its own rules concerning the removal of a worker from a project has committed a breach of contract. I would like to claim loss of earnings within a breach of contract and be paid at least the six remaining weeks of the project that I was not paid. I would like to claim also for injury of feelings

 

I would like to know also if I have to issue my claim to the Employment Tribunal or to the County Court

Link to post
Share on other sites

If you were on a true zero hours contract, your employer could simply choose to say they have no hours for you each week for the remaining weeks (if you are on a fixed period contract, or forever if you are on an open ended contract)

 

Unfortunately, until you have worked for an employee for more than 2 years you have no rights to take your employer to a tribunal for unfair dismissal (or much else) unless it's on grounds for discrimination where special rules apply

Link to post
Share on other sites

I think that you are maybe right and I was in a ‘fixed term contract’ and not in a ‘zero hours contract’ because I should have been employed until the end of a specific event i.e. the end of a project. However contrary to what you say I do not want to claim for unfair dismissal for which two years of continuity of work is required but I want to claim for breach of contract because the fixed term contract was ended prematurely by my employer without according to me any good reasons as explained in my first post.

 

As explained in my first post there is also the issue of the probationary period.

 

I have an additional issue because the employees of this firm who were in a fixed term contract were entitled to join the pension scheme of this firm and I was prevented from joining it because the contract was ended prematurely by my employer. Therefore I would like to know if I can claim also for this reason and if I can ask the Employment Tribunal to force this previous employer to enrol me now in his pension scheme.

 

I would like to know if the formal disciplinary procedure in case of underperformance applies also to the probationary period because if yes does the very short probationary period of 30 hours has any sense in law because the disciplinary procedure says that the worker who underperformed could be dismissed if he underperformed repeatedly after being warned several times what means that his underperformance should be assessed during a long period and 30 hours is not a long period?

 

My other question is does the employer need to have a probation period if there is already a clause in the contract which says that he can remove a worker from a project if he underperforms?

 

Therefore I would like to know if I issue a claim to the Employment Tribunal do I need to make any reference in the claim form to my probation period or only to the clause which says that my employer can remove a worker from a project who underperforms?

Link to post
Share on other sites

Can you clarify what you think your claim is for please? You raise a lot of points but I can't see one which in law you would be compemsated for.

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

Link to post
Share on other sites

The only possible claim it sounds like you might have is a claim for breach of contract. In which case you would need to say exactly what part of the contract you believe has been breached?

 

Even if the reasons given for your dismissal were totally bogus, I suppose the employer would have been entitled to reduce your hours to zero, or to dismiss you (one week's notice is required if you have more than one month's service).

 

Injury for damage to feelings is not available for dismissal claims. In any event you do not have the 2 years service required to claim for unfair dismissal.

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING

EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHERS

 

Link to post
Share on other sites

were you paid for the work you did and then an uplift of 12% for holiday pay accrued? If not you have a claim but other than that very little of substance as you appear to be paid an hourly rate rather than say £xxxx for doing a specific project, regardless of how long it took to complete

Link to post
Share on other sites

style="text-align: center;">  

Thread Locked

because no one has posted on it for the last 2377 days.

If you need to add something to this thread then

 

Please click the "Report " link

 

at the bottom of one of the posts.

 

If you want to post a new story then

Please

Start your own new thread

That way you will attract more attention to your story and get more visitors and more help 

 

Thanks

Guest
This topic is now closed to further replies.
  • Recently Browsing   0 Caggers

    • No registered users viewing this page.

  • Have we helped you ...?


×
×
  • Create New...