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    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

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      This is good ethical practice.

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what is my liability and what should i do? please read


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2 years ago i bought a motorcycle and titles never changed to my name

 

.seller called me now and told me that 1 year ago supposingly someone took my bike and failed to stop on police signal in the night.

 

the police contacted previous owner as it was still registered to him,

went at the police station but he didnt remember my details to contact me.

 

now,after 6 months, he remembered my details as he stands a court for failing to transfer the titles and he said he is going to mention me in the court.

ofcourse it wasnt me.

 

by the way i have transferred the titles to my name today.

i dont want to blame the previous owner as the truth is that i had the bike but didnt commit that offence.

 

as i checked my messenger i was talking to my gf that night from home so i can prove that and from my ip.

 

how can i prove it and what can i say if called to court after all this time?

what are my liabilities?

 

more over will i be the keeper in law's eyes?

 

best regards

Edited by dx100uk
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WHy didnt you transfer the title when you bought it?

 

And if you had the bike.. who comitted the offence. You are obliged to name the person to the police, or the consequences can be a lot more severe.

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

:D

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WHy didnt you transfer the title when you bought it?

 

And if you had the bike.. who comitted the offence. You are obliged to name the person to the police, or the consequences can be a lot more severe.

 

How can i name a person after a year of not having knowledge of such an event occured?

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So you have this bike, which you say has been broken and unused for the last two years (so broken that it wasn't taxed or declared off road). But in the middle of those two years somebody rode it and committed an offence on it.

 

Your liability is that, as the person keeping the vehicle at the time of an allegation (which you do not dispute), you have an obligation, if you are asked, to provide the details of the driver at the time of that allegation. Have you been formally asked? What exactly is your involvement at present?

 

If you fill in the gaps in the story (both parts as mentioned above) you may get some help.

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So you have this bike, which you say has been broken and unused for the last two years (so broken that it wasn't taxed or declared off road). But in the middle of those two years somebody rode it and committed an offence on it.

 

Your liability is that, as the person keeping the vehicle at the time of an allegation (which you do not dispute), you have an obligation, if you are asked, to provide the details of the driver at the time of that allegation. Have you been formally asked? What exactly is your involvement at present?

 

If you fill in the gaps in the story (both parts as mentioned above) you may get some help.

 

i agree that my liability would be to provide details if i was the keeper. but formaly i wasnt as nor titles were exchanged nor any other proof of sale to me. its like a friend gave a car to me to keep at my home and i gave it to another guy who crashed it. who would be liable for damages? anyway. even if i am the keeper under the eyes of law, how can i provide details now after 1 year for a supposed incident of what i dont have a clue it happened? i havent been formally asked by anyone but since the registered owner is going to present my name at court i believe i will be called. I dont have an involment at present except of what is mentioned.

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i agree that my liability would be to provide details if i was the keeper. but formaly i wasnt as nor titles were exchanged nor any other proof of sale to me

 

You were "the person keeping the vehicle" at the relevant time. It does not matter if you were the not the Registered Keeper, or the owner. "The person keeping the vehicle" has a specific mention in Section 172 of the Road Traffic Act (which is the legislation that places the obligation on you to provide drivers details). To understand this, imagine a leased car. The lease company will be the owner and the Registered Keeper, but they are not the "person keeping the vehicle". The person to whom it is leased and who (presumably) usually drives it is.

 

I don't actually know what your concern about having to name the driver is at this stage. If the previous owner is being prosecuted for failing to notify a change of ownership that has nothing to do with you. If he mentions that he sold it to you there is no reason why you should be formally asked to provide the driver's details at the time of the offence you mention. The two things are unrelated. What may be of a more urgent concern to you is that you have had in your possession a motor vehicle which you have neither registered in your own name, nor paid vehicle excise duty nor declared it off road. You may find some enquiries re made into that situation now that you have contacted the DVLA though you may escape action for some of those offences as you were not the Registered Keeper.

 

There is no point is running through your situation should you face a request to name the driver unless and until it is made of you. One thing the prosecutors may bear in mind is that for most (though not all) driving offences there is a limit of six months from the date of the offence beyond which no prosecution can take place.

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Cloned number plate?

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Cloned number plate?

 

Very possibly (although they are incredibly rare). Unfortunately we don't have any indication from the OP whether or not he believes his vehicle was involved or not. We only know that he took possession of the bike, did nothing to formalise his ownership of it and then it remained, seemingly unused because it was broken.

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I wonder if there is video footage or if its just a PC got it wrong when they failed to stop?

and its just progressed through the system?

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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You were "the person keeping the vehicle" at the relevant time. It does not matter if you were the not the Registered Keeper, or the owner. "The person keeping the vehicle" has a specific mention in Section 172 of the Road Traffic Act (which is the legislation that places the obligation on you to provide drivers details). To understand this, imagine a leased car. The lease company will be the owner and the Registered Keeper, but they are not the "person keeping the vehicle". The person to whom it is leased and who (presumably) usually drives it is.

 

I don't actually know what your concern about having to name the driver is at this stage. If the previous owner is being prosecuted for failing to notify a change of ownership that has nothing to do with you. If he mentions that he sold it to you there is no reason why you should be formally asked to provide the driver's details at the time of the offence you mention. The two things are unrelated. What may be of a more urgent concern to you is that you have had in your possession a motor vehicle which you have neither registered in your own name, nor paid vehicle excise duty nor declared it off road. You may find some enquiries re made into that situation now that you have contacted the DVLA though you may escape action for some of those offences as you were not the Registered Keeper.

 

There is no point is running through your situation should you face a request to name the driver unless and until it is made of you. One thing the prosecutors may bear in mind is that for most (though not all) driving offences there is a limit of six months from the date of the offence beyond which no prosecution can take place.

 

if he mentions that he sold it to me i dont think that court and police will just drop the case.As you said above''The person keeping the vehicle" has a specific mention in Section 172 of the Road Traffic Act (which is the legislation that places the obligation on you to provide drivers details)''so i believe they will enquire me about identifying the driver as i had it in my possesion and if i tell them i dont know they will assume i was the driver even though i wasnt. i am so scared by the whole situation.also will that hit my criminal record?

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You keep on asking the same question and I keep on giving you the same answer. There is too much missing from this story to answer properly. However, I'll try one last time:

 

As I understand it the situation is this:

 

 

- You bought a bike two years ago and failed to ensure that it was registered in your name.

- A year ago someone was detected on the bike (or at least a vehicle with that registration number) committing a traffic offence.

- The police went to the previous owner (in whose name the bike was still registered).

- He told them he had sold the bike but could not remember your details.

- Six months later he finally did remember your details.

- He now faces court for failing to ensure that the registration had been transferred.

 

(Please tell me if I have any of this wrong)

 

So up to now you have no responsibilities. You haven't been asked to supply any details to anyone. However, he already faces action for failing to notify the DVLA of a change of ownership. You may face action for failing to tax the vehicle (or declare it off road). You may also face action for failing to insure the vehicle. Under the "continuous insurance" legislation a vehicle not declared off road must have third party insurance (and I assume from what you say that you didn't have any). There's nothing you can do about either of those. You must wait and see what, if any, allegations are made.

 

Although you currently have no responsibility to name the driver at the time of the alleged offence a year ago, a request might come your way. In order to help with that you need to say what the offence was (and you won't know that until you get an official request). It would also help if you said whether you believed your vehicle could have been involved or whether you believe that it was another vehicle. But until you get an official request there is nothing you can do anyway.

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You have nothing wrong in your understanding.

That is how the things are currently.

 

The guy has a court in a month so i will have to wait.

Thank you for the time you consume for answering my enqueries

Edited by dx100uk
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agree, all you can do is wait. Sometimes it is just not worth their while taking actiondue to cost or the liklihood of getting a conviction is low. If there is somehting the DVLA can clobber you for a flat fee penalty I'm sure you will hear soon enough

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