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    • Thanks FTMDave, I like the cut of your jib - I'll go with that and obtain proof of postage. Encouraging that NPE have never followed through and seem to blowing hot air, let's see where they go after this   Regards
    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
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Hoist/? Claim form - old Barclaycard poss SB debt***Claim Discontinued***


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Hi all,

 

Have today received a CCJ Claim from Hoist Portfolio Holding 2 Ltd. who apparently purchased the debt from MKDP LLP (Ex Barclaycard).

 

According to my records the last payment on this account was made in June 2010, but the assignment in my credit file (just checked on Noddle) is showing the date of default in February 2011 so obviously there is a discrepancy.

 

So, which one is more accurate? I was under the impression that the actual date of default is around 3 months after the last COA, which would lead to September 2010 + 6 years which gives a date of September 2016, which would then make the debt staute barred?

 

And my other question is, do I then go down the statute barred route, or the CCA/CPR31.14 route for them to 'prove it'?

 

Many thanks.

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Hi

 

If you could read the following link and then copy and paste the Qs and your responses back here for the best advice on how to proceed with the cliam.

 

http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/showthread.php?419198-You-have-received-a-Claim-What-you-need-to-do.-**UPDATED-2016**(2-Viewing)-nbsp

 

Regards

 

Andy

We could do with some help from you.

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHER

 

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Hi Andy,

 

Name of the Claimant ?

Hoist Portfoilio Holding 2 Ltd.

Date of issue – top right hand corner of the claim form – this in order to establish the time line you need to adhere to.

10 Jan 2017

 

What is the claim for – the reason they have issued the claim?*Please type out their particulars of claim in full (verbatim) less any identifiable data and round the amounts up/down.

This Claim is for the sum of £2800 in respect of monies owing under an Agreement with the account no. xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx pursuant to The COnsume Credit Act 1974 (CCA).

The debt was legally assigned by MKDP LLP (Ex Barclaycard) to the Claimant and notice has been served. The Defendant has failed to make contractual payments under the terms of the Agreement. A default notice has been served upon the Defendant pursuant to s.87(1) CCA.

The Claimant claims

1. The sum of £2800

2. Interest pursuant to s69 of the County Court Act 1984 at a rate of 8.00 percent from the xx/02/11 to the date hereof 21xx days is the sum of £1400.

3. Future interest accuring at the daily rate of £.xx

4. Costs

 

What is the value of the claim?

£4400

 

Is the claim for a current account (Overdraft) or credit/loan account or mobile phone account?

Credit Card

 

When did you enter into the original agreement before or after 2007?

Before 2007

 

Has the claim been issued by the original creditor or was the account assigned and it is the Debt purchaser who has issued the claim.*

2nd debt purchaser

 

Were you aware the account had been assigned – did you receive a Notice of Assignment?*

Can't remember one

 

Did you receive a Default Notice from the original creditor?*

Can't remember one

 

Have you been receiving statutory notices headed “Notice of Default sums” – at least once a year ?*

Can't remember any

 

Why did you cease payments?

Couldn't afford them

 

What was the date of your last payment?

June 2010

 

Was there a dispute with the original creditor that remains unresolved?

No

 

Did you communicate any financial problems to the original creditor and make any attempt to enter into a*debt management*plan?*

No

 

I have left some details out as don't want it to be identified and also rounded up/down some of the figures.

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Excellent... thank you...advice will follow shortly.

We could do with some help from you.

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHER

 

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If last payment was June 2010 its statute barred

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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You have 33 days in total if you intend to defend in full...19 days to acknowledge service and then another 14 days to submit your defence.Look in your response pack it gives all the details for registering to use the MCOL on line service.

 

Your password is already on the claim formi.

 

Once you have your username...log into MCOL and acknowledge service and state you wish to defend the claim in full...do not tick contest jurisdiction...then log out.....thats all for now.Then work out your defence date and start to read other threads...you will soon get a clear picture of how the process works.

 

Your next task is to send a CCA Request (section 78) to the claimant and a CPR 31.14 request to the Solicitor named on the claim form...refer back to the link in post#2

 

Regards

 

Andy

We could do with some help from you.

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Thanks Andy & dx100uk

 

That was my thinking that the debt should be statute barred by now.

 

Am going to send a CCA to the claimaint tomorrow and and a CPR31.14 to the solicitor aswell. Am going to see what that produces first. Presumably if they can 'prove the debt' from those, I can then argue that it's statute barred (I have evidence of the last payment so can prove it)?

 

I did sucessfully fight off MKDP a couple of years ago regarding another CC debt and this was my last one! It went all the way with MKDP trying every dirty trick in their book, until they finally withdrew the case a week before going to court (although I only actually found out by attending court on the agreed date).

 

Thanks again.

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Old hand at this then :-)

We could do with some help from you.

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHER

 

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doesn't matter if they hold paperwork or not

andthey wont tell you its SB'd in any return either.

they'll purposefully hide that info

 

pers if you are 100% confident its SB'd

 

i'd go file the SB defence now!

 

that will put pressure on them to prove its not within 28days

or pay more money to lift the stay and gamble

 

bit like the chase on TV.

press first call the shot on a time limit.

 

The following defence is all you need if it is SB

1 The Claimant's claim was issued on (insert date).

2 The Defendant contends that the Claimant's claim so issued is a claim in contract and is statute barred pursuant to the provisions of section 5 of the limitation act 1980.

.

If, which is denied, the claimant contends that the Defendant is in breach of the alleged contract, in excess of 6 years have elapsed since the date on which any cause of action for breach accrued for the benefit of the Claimant.

.

3 The Claimant's claim to be entitled to payment of £[insert figure from their POC] or any other sum, or relief of any kind is denied.

..

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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I'm reasonably confident it's SB. Last payment was June 2010 and I have statements up until January 2011 all saying 0.00 payments.

 

According to HOIST and my credit file the date of default was late Feb 2011 but based on the last payment being in the June, the actual date must be before then and must be SB now.

 

So, if I file SB defence now, they then have to prove it's not SB within 28 days? Seems like the quicker option to me. If I do file the above defence, do I need to provide any evidence at this stage with the defence?

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Just be aware the claimant will rely on the default notice date or the Credit Reference default date...not the first missed payment date.

 

Andy

We could do with some help from you.

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Depends on the particular District Judge and his interpretation of the Statute of Limitations and how counsel angle their argument to fit the claim...

We could do with some help from you.

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Have been reading some of the other threads and it seems there seems to be a discrepancy with when the DN has been issued in quite a few Barclaycard/MKDP/Hoist cases.

 

Of particular interest is this case: http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/showthread.php?460854-Hoist-Portfolio-2-claimform-old-Barclaycard-debt-***Claim-Still-Struck-Out-***&highlight=hoist+portfolio+holding+ltd

 

My last payment on the account was made in June 2010 so the first missed payment was in July 2010. The September 2010 statement mentions that my account is now being dealt with by Mercers and the following months statement also mentions my card has been withdrawn. The November one saying my card has been cancelled and should be destroyed. I then received 2 further statements with the last one being issued in January 2011.

 

The alleged default notice was then issued late Feb 2011 according to my credit file, which appears to be when the debt was sold onto MKDP.

 

Having read the above thread, it's fairly clear that a DCA/Bank can't choose when to issue a default notice just to extend the 6 year limitation period, so 6 years from the last COA would be July 2016, nearly 6 months ago.

 

Therefore, it looks like a SB defence is the way to go. Do I still send out CCA and CPR31.14 requests even if I do go down the SB defence route?

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There a dn SB defence too

I'll post it later

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Share on other sites

alternative whereby claimant intimates SB date=defaulted date and that has been registered months after the last payment

.

1 The Claimant's claim was issued on dd/mm/yyyy.

2.The date last payment made was the dd/mm/yyyy

3.The Default Noticed was issued dd/mm/yyyy and served several months after the initial breach thus the cause of action delayed by X months and the Limitations period prolonged to 6 years and X months which in effect allows the creditor to stop time running and the creditor having effective control of when a limitation period begins or even starts to run.

4.Therefore the Defendant contends that the Claimant's claim so issued is a claim in contract and is statute barred pursuant to the provisions of section 5 of the limitation acticon 1980. If, which is denied, the claimant contends that the Defendant is in breach of the alleged contract, in excess of 6 years have elapsed since the date on which any true cause of action for breach accrued for the benefit of the Claimant.

5.The Claimant's claim to be entitled to payment of £x or any other sum, or relief of any kind is denied.

 

.

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Share on other sites

If the defence of it being statute barred is 100% accurate and there is no chance of it being countered, then no point sending these letters.

 

If you have any slight doubt, then it may be worth sending the CCA request.

We could do with some help from you.

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHERS

 

 Have we helped you ...?         Please Donate button to the Consumer Action Group

 

If you want advice on your thread please PM me a link to your thread

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I don't know if it could/will be countered.

 

Last payment made in June 2010 so the last COA is July 2010. DN not issed until Feb 2011. As far as I understand it's 6 years from the earliest date the creditor could have started court action to recover the debt, which should be around 2/3 months after the last COA.

 

I'd been advised that my card had been withdrawn in Sep 2010 and by November they'd told me that the card had been cancelled and needed to be destroyed.

 

Therefore is it 100% SB given that they didn't issue the DN until late Feb 2011?

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I thought it was standard to issue default notice 2 months after a statement amount was not paid and then the default is registered after 14 days of non payment of the default amount.

 

 

if you had a statement in July which you did not pay,

the default notice should have been issued in September at the latest,

with payment of the default expected within 14 days.

 

 

Why they have left it until February 2011, is a bit odd ?

Unless you paid the default in September 2011 and there was then a further default ?

 

Do you have copies of all credit card statements, so you know you did not pay anything ? Or are you looking purely at Bank statements which only shows you did not make a payment from your Bank account ?

We could do with some help from you.

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHERS

 

 Have we helped you ...?         Please Donate button to the Consumer Action Group

 

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I would send the CCA/CPR 31 irrespective of your defence...wont do any harm

We could do with some help from you.

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I thought it was standard to issue default notice 2 months after a statement amount was not paid and then the default is registered after 14 days of non payment of the default amount. So if you had a statement in July which you did not pay, the default notice should have been issued in September at the latest, with payment of the default expected within 14 days. Why they have left it until February 2011, is a bit odd ? Unless you paid the default in September 2011 and there was then a further default ?

 

Do you have copies of all credit card statements, so you know you did not pay anything ? Or are you looking purely at Bank statements which only shows you did not make a payment from your Bank account ?

 

I have the credit card statements all the way up to Jan 2011 (the last one they produced) and clearly shows no payments after June 2010, so no further payment was made after that date.

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