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    • Northmonk forget what I said about your Notice to Hirer being the best I have seen . Though it  still may be  it is not good enough to comply with PoFA. Before looking at the NTH, we can look at the original Notice to Keeper. That is not compliant. First the period of parking as sated on their PCN is not actually the period of parking but a misstatement  since it is only the arrival and departure times of your vehicle. The parking period  is exactly that -ie the time youwere actually parked in a parking spot.  If you have to drive around to find a place to park the act of driving means that you couldn't have been parked at the same time. Likewise when you left the parking place and drove to the exit that could not be describes as parking either. So the first fail is  failing to specify the parking period. Section9 [2][a] In S9[2][f] the Act states  (ii)the creditor does not know both the name of the driver and a current address for service for the driver, the creditor will (if all the applicable conditions under this Schedule are met) have the right to recover from the keeper so much of that amount as remains unpaid; Your PCN fails to mention the words in parentheses despite Section 9 [2]starting by saying "The notice must—..." As the Notice to Keeper fails to comply with the Act,  it follows that the Notice to Hirer cannot be pursued as they couldn't get the NTH compliant. Even if the the NTH was adjudged  as not  being affected by the non compliance of the NTK, the Notice to Hirer is itself not compliant with the Act. Once again the PCN fails to get the parking period correct. That alone is enough to have the claim dismissed as the PCN fails to comply with PoFA. Second S14 [5] states " (5)The notice to Hirer must— (a)inform the hirer that by virtue of this paragraph any unpaid parking charges (being parking charges specified in the notice to keeper) may be recovered from the hirer; ON their NTH , NPE claim "The driver of the above vehicle is liable ........" when the driver is not liable at all, only the hirer is liable. The driver and the hirer may be different people, but with a NTH, only the hirer is liable so to demand the driver pay the charge  fails to comply with PoFA and so the NPE claim must fail. I seem to remember that you have confirmed you received a copy of the original PCN sent to  the Hire company plus copies of the contract you have with the Hire company and the agreement that you are responsible for breaches of the Law etc. If not then you can add those fails too.
    • Weaknesses in some banks' security measures for online and mobile banking could leave customers more exposed to scammers, new data from Which? reveals.View the full article
    • I understand what you mean. But consider that part of the problem, and the frustration of those trying to help, is the way that questions are asked without context and without straight facts. A lot of effort was wasted discussing as a consumer issue before it was mentioned that the property was BTL. I don't think we have your history with this property. Were you the freehold owner prior to this split? Did you buy the leasehold of one half? From a family member? How was that funded (earlier loan?). How long ago was it split? Have either of the leasehold halves changed hands since? I'm wondering if the split and the leashold/freehold arrangements were set up in a way that was OK when everyone was everyone was connected. But a way that makes the leasehold virtually unsaleable to an unrelated party.
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Will Advice Please


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Good Afternoon 

can anyone help me

if my mum in law has left in her will that everything is to be split 3 ways with my hubby and his 2 sisters

what would happen if he passed away before her.

 

would it come to me as his wife or go 50/50 to his sisters 

 

many Thanks 

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Your husband's share would go to you

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  • dx100uk changed the title to Will Advice Please

Expressed that way you are now putting me in doubt....

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10 minutes ago, BankFodder said:

Expressed that way you are now putting me in doubt....

 

It would be OK if the OP was talking about children or grandchildren of the intended beneficiary - they would inherit if the intended beneficiary pre-deceased the testator (s33 Wills Act).

 

But I don't know that the same appiles to the widow/widower.  I'd have thought it didn't apply...

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Does the Will say anything about what happens if your husband or his sisters die before their mother?

 

There are default rules about what happens in that situation but the default rules can be overridden in the Will. The Will can direct that something different to the default rules happens.

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I might be mistaken but I presume the OP would have said if the wording of the will took account of the scenario where her husband predeceased the testator?

 

@dillon21  -  without knowing the exact circumstances and wording of the will nobody here can really help you.

 

I would suggest that if your MiL's will simply leaves a bequest to your husband and does not spell out what will happen if he pre-deceases her, then you cannot assume that you will get anything as his widow.  However, if he has any living children or other issue surviving both him and your MiL, they will probably inherit.

 

I presume your MiL is still alive?  I would suggest that she gets proper paid for legal advice from a solicitor to make sure that her will puts her actual wishes into effect after she dies.

 

(My wife is a local authority solicitor and we have three law degrees between us.  When we got married we did our own wills because our wishes were really simple and we thought we knew what we were doing.  A couple of years later we realised that we had made a complete pig's ear of them.  We paid a solicitor in private practice to do them properly)

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pretty sure if anyone (other than direct children or grand children) mentioned in a will predeceases the will writer it does not go to their existing wife nor children, it goes back in the pot and is split between those already mentioned pro rata in the will.??

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please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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11 hours ago, Manxman in exile said:

I might be mistaken but I presume the OP would have said if the wording of the will took account of the scenario where her husband predeceased the testator?

 

 

It's best to check these things. Not everyone asking for advice has the familiarity with the legal construction of Wills that some regular posters have. And it's useful for other people reading the thread in the future to be aware of the issue.

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10 hours ago, dx100uk said:

pretty sure if anyone (other than direct children or grand children) mentioned in a will predeceases the will writer it does not go to their existing wife nor children, it goes back in the pot and is split between those already mentioned pro rata in the will.??

 

Yes.  

 

To clarify my earlier post:  where a testator leaves a gift to a child or remoter descendant, then if that beneficiary pre-deceases the testator the gift does not fail, but goes to any surviving issue of the deceased benficiary - unless the will specifically states otherwise.

 

Wills Act 1837 (legislation.gov.uk)

 

So in the OP's case I don't think she will benefit if her husband dies before her MiL, but his children and grandchildren etc will - if he has any.

 

People really need paid for legal advice from a solicitor (not a will writing firm) unless their wishes are unbelieveably simple.  And most people's are not.

 

The problem the OP has is that this is not her (or her husband's) will...

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1 hour ago, Ethel Street said:

 

 

It's best to check these things. Not everyone asking for advice has the familiarity with the legal construction of Wills that some regular posters have. And it's useful for other people reading the thread in the future to be aware of the issue.

 

Very true.  I think from #6 the OP is going to investigate further.

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11 hours ago, dx100uk said:

pretty sure if anyone (other than direct children or grand children) mentioned in a will predeceases the will writer it does not go to their existing wife nor children, it goes back in the pot and is split between those already mentioned pro rata in the will.??

 

Sorry!  To clarify further, if the gift does fail because the dead beneficiary had no children, then yes, it goes back into the residual estate to be distributed as per the will.  So the OP might get something out of that depending on what the will says

 

It can get complicated...

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