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    • Which Court have you received the claim from ? Northampton  Name of the Claimant ? Overdales solicitors  How many defendant's  joint or self ?  Self Date of issue – top right hand corner of the claim form – this in order to establish the time line you need to adhere to.  13 may 2024 What is the claim for – the reason they have issued the claim? the claim is for the sum of £6163.61due by the defendant under an agreement regulated by the consumer credit act 1974 for hsbc uk bank plc. Account 4546384809766042. The defendant faild to maintain contractual payments required by the agreement and a default notice was served under s 87(1)  of the consumer credit act 1974 which as not been compiled with. The dbt was legally assigned to the Claimant on 23/08/23, notice on which as been given to the defendant.  The claim includes statutory interest under S.69 of the county courts act 1984 at a rate of 8% per annum from the date of assignment to the date of issue of these proceedings in the sum of £117.53 the Claimant claims the sum of £6281.14. Have you received prior notice of a claim being issued pursuant to paragraph 3 of the PAPDC (Pre Action Protocol) ?   Not to my knowledge. Have you changed your address since the time at which the debt referred to in the claim was allegedly incurred?  No Do you recall how you entered into the agreement...On line /In branch/By post ?  Online but it was for a smaller amount they kept on increasing this with me asking Has the claim been issued by the original creditor or was the account assigned and it is the Debt purchaser who has issued the claim.  It was assigned to a debt collection agency  Were you aware the account had been assigned – did you receive a Notice of Assignment? yes  Did you receive a Default Notice from the original creditor?  Yes I also made offers to pay original creditor a smaller amount but was not replied to Have you been receiving statutory notices headed “Notice of Sums in Arrears”  or " Notice of Arrears "– at least once a year ?  No Why did you cease payments? I was made redundant and got a less paid job I also spent some time on furlough during covid and spent some 3 months on ssp off work. What was the date of your last payment?  May 2021 Did you communicate any financial problems to the original creditor and make any attempt to enter into a debt management plan? Yes at the time I communicated with all my creditor's that I was running out of funds to pay the original agreements once my redundancy money ran out that was when my accounts defaulted. I then wrote to all my creditor's with pro rata offers of payments but debt collectors took over the accounts.
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Can a DCA charge interest?


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Opinions seem to vary on this and despite some serious googling and even a few searches on here, there seems to be nothing which is actually definitive.

 

If the dca does NOT own the debt, it seems they cannot add interest.

If they DO own the debt, the general opinion is that they can only charge it, if the original agreement has the provision to do so, if sold on to a third party (and generally) the agreements don't.

 

This seems to be a common question asked and with idiots like Cabot charging 12%, I think it's vitally important to have a definitive answer to this.

 

Do you guys agree?

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If a debt has been sold with all the rights benefits

and obligations of the original agreement if the terms

and conditions of the original agreement allow for interest

to be charged then it can be so charged at the rate specified

in the agreement.

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.....Not withstanding the fact that many people will receive a DN (some compliant and some not), but NEVER receive a TN?

Although, I know some (inc me) that receive a letter from the OC saying you've done this / that / defaulted etc and a load of other blurb, with a line added "we have terminated the agreement" (which is not a proper TN, No?)

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Thanks Brig,

 

But this is where you have the confusion arising. There are others that say interest can only be charged if the original agreement has that provision if the debt is sold on?

 

If it is not stated in the agreement then they can not charge it.

If it is in the agreement then they can only charge the amount stated in the agreement, unless you have recieved a prior variation to the agreement. (They must provide evidence if an agreement has been varied - and they can only charge you from the date they notify you).

 

Regardless of the above If a DCA buys an agreement they can only charge interest from the date that you are notified of the assignment.

 

Any company who charges, and claims interest, to which it is not entitled is commiting an act of fraud and should be reported to the OFT immediatley.

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Just to throw another spanner in the works.....as usual!

 

I am of the opinion that....

My agreement is with the OC, if I default and it is passed onto another third party, who then demands full and immediate payment, then that original agreement is now dead.

 

Therefore, I am only liable for the amount up to the time I was asked for full payment, once that happened, then no further interest or charges can be applied as the original agreement no longer exists....

Who ever heard of someone getting a job at the Jobcentre? The unemployed are sent there as penance for their sins, not to help them find work!

 

 

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Reading this Tread, I thought I would recheck my 3 Cabot Accts. One of them is charging interest.

Cabots balance Dec 2006 was £3,418.32

Now the balance is £4748.91

No mention of interest charged, waiting for CCA from them, just sent dispute letter.

Interesting read though Bazooka Boo.

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surely............

 

if the agreement has been terminated by anyone [typically the OC] then no int can be charged by anyone as the agreement and its T&C's are no longer in-force.

 

a 'buyer' cannot automatically or by default assume any rights to charge anything let alone interest.

 

as stated this is fraud, any agreement they 'assume' is in force has not been signed by the payee.

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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surely............

 

if the agreement has been terminated by anyone [typically the OC] then no int can be charged by anyone as the agreement and its T&C's are no longer in-force.

 

a 'buyer' cannot automatically or by default assume any rights to charge anything let alone interest.

 

as stated this is fraud, any agreement they 'assume' is in force has not been signed by the payee.

 

dx

 

Hi,

 

Ok...i have another few questions....

 

1) Is it not best then to just let the original creditor sell it on...then SAR for final balance....which is what is owed....and sit and wait?

 

2) Can the final balance via this be used in a court of law if it ever does get to a court case...hence the 'new owners' are taking you to court for final balance and illegally added charges....? So part of the defence is that this is a hiked up balance..not the real balance.

 

3) I'm not advocating to evade...i just think ultimately...if my girlfriends creditors ( which are few and not for a lot of money ) say 'bugger off' effectively...and it gets to the £1 a month stage ( it's started as £5 a month of which i will be paying ) and she's not got back on her feet....best to just leave it at that and wait...at the £1 a month part.If it goes to court then she has been paying...and it is then them that are being unreasonable...( thanks bazooka for the £5 starting tip ).

 

4) If it does get sold on...and you continue with your payments with new 'owner' ( ****** ) and they have no rights to add illegal charges...then you are reducing the debt....( in theory ).

 

Feedback appreciated..as always.

 

Regards,

Stormski

Edited by stormski
Another question
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A shameless bump for some more feedback...

 

Thanks for all the input so far.

 

The problem as I see it...

 

A dca buys a debt for lets say £1k, which has a face value of £10k.

They are only out of pocket by £1k, so they are charging you interest on £9k which they never lent to you!! - shameful!

 

Something definitive would be great, as we would then be able to tackle these **** with their "unlawful" charges. Not only that, there could be a huge influx of complains going off to the oft, which is always a good thing against these companies.

 

Thanks all

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They can IMHO can only charge interest after the purchase of the debt

if the original agreement specifies that it can be charged.

Any Letters I Draft are N0T approved by CAG and no personal liability is accepted.

Please Consider making a donation to keep this site running!

Nemo Mortalium Omnibus Horis Sapit: Animo et Fide:

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The purpose of this forum is to

help others not to show that you

can quote sections of acts of Parliament

without explaining it to the person

seeking advice, to do this is pointless.

BTW I know it you pointed the OP to the

section of CCA 2006 the least you can do

is explain it to them.

Any Letters I Draft are N0T approved by CAG and no personal liability is accepted.

Please Consider making a donation to keep this site running!

Nemo Mortalium Omnibus Horis Sapit: Animo et Fide:

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