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    • Thanks FTMDave, I like the cut of your jib - I'll go with that and obtain proof of postage. Encouraging that NPE have never followed through and seem to blowing hot air, let's see where they go after this   Regards
    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
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sneaky ccj - carter on orange debt - help with set aside


cortez796
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Can you give more info on whats happened prior to this please

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

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From what I can gather

 

 

she came back from holiday in September or thereabouts

 

 

in the mail was a default judgement for nearly £500 regarding a mobile phone bill.

 

 

She had not received any forms from the court prior to going on holiday,

she may have received letters from the DCA but she can't honestly remember if she did or not

because as far as she was aware she did not owe any money to any phone bill.

 

 

On looking further into it she had a default on her credit file for £94

 

 

on contacting the claimant apparently the last payment she made was in 2009.

 

 

She has not been able to get any details from Orange as they have now combined with EE.

 

 

She was advised by somebody else that she should go for set aside who she no longer has any contact with.

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Thread moved to the appropriate forum.

 

If you could provide a few further details cortez796

 

Date of Judgment

Judgment Creditor

Solicitor

 

Regards

 

Andy

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Don't have paperwork to han pretty sure it was around 20th September.

 

Judgement creditor is Lowell

 

Solicitor is Bryan Carter

 

Thanks

 

:roll: Well apart from the none receipt of the claim ...and the fact that it may be statute barred (over 6 years without payment acknowledgment) there is very little else you need to do to prepare...you have got to the hearing stage so the court thinks there is reason to hear the application.

 

Check the dates more closely though ...Judgment was granted in Sept 2015...so the claim was probably issued July Aug...so the last payment in 2009 would have to be pre July Aug

 

Regards

 

Andy

We could do with some help from you.

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHER

 

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Will this be OK for the set aside defence:-

Reasons I would like judgement set aside.

 

1. I came back from holiday at my parent’s caravan and on opening my mail I found a letter telling me that I had a default judgement against me. At no time had I received any communication from the court telling me that this was going to court.

 

2. Looking into this further apparently it is a mobile phone debt with Orange. I had a mobile phone contract with Orange from approx. 2007 until 2014 when I changed my contract to Vodafone and at no time had I had any communication from Orange telling me I was in arrears.

 

3. Having checked my credit file there is a default showing in 2010 to Lowell Portfolio for £93, I had no idea who this company were and I have never had any dealings with them. I now know Lowell have bought the alleged debt from Orange.

 

4. I believe the alleged debt would be statute barred as apparently the last payment made on this account was July 2009.

 

5. I have requested further information from Orange regarding this but as it stands I have had no reply. I do not recall having received any communication from Lowell as I don’t have any dealings with this company, any mail I may have received I would assume was junk mail and put it straight in the bin.

rt

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point 4 is all you need.

the rest is just a repeat of the same other things written in different ways

 

 

can you PROVE its statute barred?

 

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Will this be OK for the set aside defence:-

Reasons I would like judgement set aside.

 

1. I came back from holiday at my parent’s caravan and on opening my mail I found a letter telling me that I had a default judgement against me. At no time had I received any communication from the court telling me that this was going to court.

 

2. Looking into this further apparently it is a mobile phone debt with Orange. I had a mobile phone contract with Orange from approx. 2007 until 2014 when I changed my contract to Vodafone and at no time had I had any communication from Orange telling me I was in arrears.

 

3. Having checked my credit file there is a default showing in 2010 to Lowell Portfolio for £93, I had no idea who this company were and I have never had any dealings with them. I now know Lowell have bought the alleged debt from Orange.

 

4. I believe the alleged debt would be statute barred as apparently the last payment made on this account was July 2009.

 

5. I have requested further information from Orange regarding this but as it stands I have had no reply. I do not recall having received any communication from Lowell as I don’t have any dealings with this company, any mail I may have received I would assume was junk mail and put it straight in the bin.

rt

 

Should be okay ...two angle approach none receipt of the claim form and also statute barred.......but just to nail it you should find out if a default notice was ever issued if you can before the hearing...if not they are in trouble ...if so then it must be dated August.

 

And yes it is for claimant to prove its not statute barred...not you to prove it is.

 

 

Andy

We could do with some help from you.

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whats this comment about?

 

 

on contacting the claimant apparently the last payment she made was in 2009.

expand please

 

on a std claim - its for a claimant to prove a debt is not SB's not for you to prove it is.

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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The claimant being the DCA, who will lie through their teeth. The claimint in question is also well known for inventing false payments to an account in order to suggest the debt isnt SB

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

:D

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Will this be OK for the set aside defence:-

Reasons I would like judgement set aside.

 

1. I came back from holiday at my parent’s caravan and on opening my mail I found a letter telling me that I had a default judgement against me. At no time had I received any communication from the court telling me that this was going to court.

 

2. Looking into this further apparently it is a mobile phone debt with Orange. I had a mobile phone contract with Orange from approx. 2007 until 2014 when I changed my contract to Vodafone and at no time had I had any communication from Orange telling me I was in arrears.

 

3. Having checked my credit file there is a default showing in 2010 to Lowell Portfolio for £93, I had no idea who this company were and I have never had any dealings with them. I now know Lowell have bought the alleged debt from Orange.

 

4. I believe the alleged debt would be statute barred as apparently the last payment made on this account was July 2009.

 

5. I have requested further information from Orange regarding this but as it stands I have had no reply. I do not recall having received any communication from Lowell as I don’t have any dealings with this company, any mail I may have received I would assume was junk mail and put it straight in the bin.

rt

 

I don't like the part in paragraph 5 where your daughter says she just binned letters without reading them.

 

The Court will have served your daughter with the Claim Form at the same address that she was served the with the judgment. She doesn't want the Judge to think she binned the Court papers by mistake without reading them.

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Yes...perhaps best to remove that part cortez796

We could do with some help from you.

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHER

 

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My daughter attended court and the judge has granted set aside but she has to supply the court with reasons for and any supporting documentation she may have, with a copy going to the claimant.

 

This has to be at the court before 4pm on Christmas Eve.

 

Would the reasons that she has to supply to the court be the same as I have already posted above and is there any special format this should be written in?

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Thanks for your replies.

 

The issue date of the original claim was 21st August 2015, according to the information I have received, although verbal, the last payment was made in July 2009.

 

Do you think this would be statute barred?

 

 

urm this might be tight on sb?

 

 

the claimform is usually issue +33 days before the judgement.

 

 

the issuing of a claimform stalls the sb clock

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Share on other sites

Who told you that the last payment was made in July 2009? Was it the DCA?

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

:D

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Do not take their word for it. They are known liars. Go through the oc and your bank.

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

:D

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