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    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
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      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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Brother Printer will not switch on - purchase June 2014 - covered by EU Law?


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I bought a Brother printer in June 2014 which has been used to print fewer than 200 documents,

most of which were little more than single sheet text files.

I last printed a text document about four days ago.

 

 

The printer runs a self test and cleaning procedure once per week and it did this yesterday. Today, it won't switch on.

 

I checked the fuse and used a meter to make sure that there is power being delivered by the cable.

I found a procedure to supposedly fix this by unplugging it and reconnecting power with the power button pressed

but after three attempts, this has not worked.

 

It is outside its one year warranty

but I have often read about how consumer goods are covered by EU law

for longer than the stated warranty period under certain circumstances

and I am wondering if that might apply to this situation;

 

 

i.e. that a printer which has had light use ought to at least switch on.

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I have changed the ink cartridges and have used non-OEM replacements but I have been doing this for 18 months. The last time I changed a cartridge was about four months ago; the printer has never rejected the cartridges and I fail to see how the use of non-OEM cartridges could cause the printer to stop powering up unless it had been sabotaged to do so by the manufacturer.

 

The user manual states the following:

 

Brother multifunction machines are designed to work with ink of a particular specification and will work to a level of optimum performance and reliability when used with Brother Original ink cartridges. Brother cannot guarantee this optimum performance and reliability if ink or ink cartridges of other specifications are used. Brother does not therefore recommend the use of cartridges other than Brother Original cartridges or the refilling of used cartridges with ink from other sources. Damage to the product caused by the use of consumables manufactured by third parties may not be covered by the product warranty. Please refer to the terms of the product warranty.

 

So, they don't guarantee quality, fair enough. And the warranty is only affected if damage is caused by non-OEM cartridges. I would like to know how that would be possible as they occupy diagonally opposite corners of the printer to the power supply. This is used by printer manufacturers as a trap to sell their own ink rather than there being any genuine risk of damage.

 

Anyway, since posting, I have been busy and I am waiting for the supplier to get back in touch with me. Also, I have been reading that all electronics in the EU are covered by a two year warranty which must be honoured by the retailer - not the manufacturer. I just need to find a source document to use as a reference.

 

The UK six and five year periods are only time frames for the periods during which a complaint may be raised and are not periods covering product failure, as such. Everything is badly worded, vague and difficult to nail down for the average consumer and, it seems, supplier too.

 

At the moment, I am using this article as my guide:

 

http://www.theguardian.com/money/2009/may/23/tesco-consumer-guarantee

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why are you going down that route....

 

you are covered by the sale of goods act

which is now encompassed by the consumer right act.

against the retailer.

 

carts oem or otherwise wont stop the thing switching on...

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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I just discovered that in the US,

it is actually illegal for a company to void a warranty for using non-OEM replacements

under a law called

Magnuson Moss Warranty Improvement Act United States Code Annotated Title 15 Commerce and Trade Chapter 50 Consumer Product Warranties 15 Sections 2302.

 

I realise that this would not apply to UK consumers, directly at least,

 

but I think it would apply in general to the manufacturing world.

 

I also read that HP specifically state that using non-OEM cartridges per se does not invalidate a warranty.

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the sites and answers you are reading are OUT OF DATE.

 

 

go read up on the new consumer rights act

and take it back to the retailer.

 

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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As I mentioned in post #3, having read the relevant parts, the SoGA is a bit vague as it says that the period during which a complaint can be made is six years (five in Scotland, where I am) but that does not mean that the product has a six (or five) year warranty, as far as I understand it - there is too much scope for interpretation. The EU law is more specific and states:

 

Sellers of consumer goods within the EU are obliged to guarantee the conformity of the goods with a contract, for a period of two years after the delivery of the goods.

 

Certain standards exist for assessing when conformity can be assumed and when not. If the goods are not delivered in conformity with the sales contract, consumers can ask for the goods to be repaired, replaced, and reduced in price or for the contract to be rescinded.

 

The final seller, who is responsible to the consumer, can also hold the producer liable in their business relationship.

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please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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where did you purchase it from...

 

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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but soga does.

 

 

p'haps better to not over complicate things

until the retailer says no?

 

 

a printer should last greater than 18mts

so soga covers you ok.

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Share on other sites

I just got a reply from Brother which said that I could send it for repair for £65 + VAT

and shipping but their warranty has expired so I'm focussing on the EU two year retailer warranty.

 

What has annoyed me about Brother's reply is that there is a fix for a similar problem (mentioned in the OP)

which seems to have solved the problem for many other people

(as I discovered by searching for the problem earlier today)

and they never even mentioned it.

 

 

I'm suspect that if it was under warranty, they may well have done.

 

 

And if I coughed up the £65+ repair fee, I bet it would be the first thing their technicians would try.

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who was the retailer

where did you get it from?

 

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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We have the Sale of Goods Act which is for 6 years and says how long would a reasonable person expect it to last. You can bet your life that it's more than two years.

But, and there is always a but, as it is over six months since you bought it, it will be up to you to show there was an inherent fault with it.

 

Under EU rules you always have the right to a minimum 2-year guarantee at no cost.

 

But, after 6 months in most EU countries you need to prove that the defect already existed on receipt of the goods, for example, by showing that it is due to the poor quality of the materials used.

Edited by Conniff
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Yes, it is very problematic with each legislation making interpretation a complicated matter.

 

I think that the failure of a component is a a defect. As I mentioned, I doubt I have printed more than 200 documents but without being able to switch it on, that might be difficult to prove.

 

It has not moved from the position it was placed the day I bought it and it has definitely not been misused - it still has the plastic film on the c]screen.

 

Having had a text chat with somebody at Viking, I am expecting a phone call. One thing I have at the moment is a lot of time on my hands, another is tenacity, so I will follow The Guardian Tesco television example.

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even better mail order

so the old DSR rules also apply

 

 

Viking are usually very good.

 

 

you have of course already contacted them?

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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  • 2 weeks later...

I thought I should post an update as there has been quite a bit of activity since my last post but the matter is still far from settled.

 

As mentioned previously, Brother refused to assist as the printer was no longer under the manufacturer's 12 month warranty. I had a web chat conversation with a representative from Viking and they took my details saying that somebody from the customer services manager's office would be phoning me.

 

The next morning, I was contacted by somebody from Viking's customer service who was very pleasant and seemed to understand the grounds of my complaint and said that they would be dealing with it personally. They said that they would send me a courtesy printer which I could use until the matter was settled and the next day, a similar but slightly lower specified model of Brother printer was delivered. I also received an e-mail from Brother saying that they would send a courier to collect the printer for an inspection.

 

Everything seemed to be going quite well until I received an e-mail from Brother with a quote for repair, total: £78.00. I informed them that I would not be paying for the repair under any circumstances as it had been Viking who had requested the inspection. They also said that the fault was due to power supply failure (surprise, surprise!) and that whilst it had failed for no apparent reason, it was not a manufacturing defect. I responded by saying that that was the exact opposite of the conclusion I would have drawn from the given evidence; if there is no apparent cause for a component to fail, a manufacturing defect sounds like the most likely reason.

 

Brother only responded by reducing the quote to £54.00 and I reiterated that I was not going to pay for the repair and asked why, if Viking had instigated the inspection, they were contacting me and not them.

 

I was just told that they were returning the printer to me and I will await contact from Viking. I am sure they will be in touch because I still have their courtesy printer.

 

I should insert that the printer I returned was in pretty much pristine condition; it was spotless and has actually been in the same place in a clean environment since the day it arrived and I have been extremely careful with it.

 

I have discussed this with an IT friend who rephrased my logic over and over again, that if there is no evidence to indicate that the problem had an external cause, it must have been a manufacturing defect; i.e. a defective component. Maybe I am wrong but I don't believe that I am and I think that if Sir Arthur Conan Doyle was alive today, he would agree with me.

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yes so now off to Viking

and that person you have contact with .

 

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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You are right but I discovered that I have lost their number and it was withheld when they phoned so I may have to wait until they contact me - which they are bound to do to retrieve their printer, I suppose.

 

yes so now off to Viking

and that person you have contact with .

 

 

dx

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