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    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
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Drink driving, does 2 glasses of wine = 30mg?


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If you mean alcohol content in blood :

 

Other factors such as your weight, amount of body fat, metabolism, liver function, Kidney function amount of alcohol dehydrogenase come into the equation. not that simple I'm afraid:)

 

If you mean total amount of alcohol ingested:

 

Depends on strength of wine and volume of glass.

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Additionally - the quantity of wine within each glass. Since a glass isn't a standartised measure, you could easily reach that limit with the correct balance of fluid and metabolism. To save the hassle, if I'm driving, I just don't drink.

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Drink driving, does 2 glasses of wine = 30mg?

 

Time betwen drink and test is about one hour.

 

OK, I may be able to help you on this one!

 

A small glass (125ml) of wine with 8% strength is equal to 1 unit of alcohol.

 

A standard pub measure is normally 175ml which (at the same strength) is equal to 1.4 units. Based on the average body weight for a woman, the limit for drink driving can be reached after consuming 3 units. So just 1 250ml glass of 12% strength would be enough.

 

It takes the body around 1 hour to 'dispose' of 1 unit of alcohol.

 

I can give you a more acurate response if I knew the strength and measures you are talking about.

 

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Im just looking for ballpark figures,

 

Is there an official definition of 'glass of wine' and if so what is it?

 

I think it is in the saame reference manual for calculating the length of a piece of string.

 

It is widely accepted that the 125ml amount used in statistics is pointless, as pubs don't use this as a measure.

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Most pubs sell either 175ml glass of wine or 250ml glasses (i.e. 1/3 of bottle).

 

Most wines are now between 11 and 14% abv.

 

So working out units consumed can be difficult. Some bottles do have the unit measure on them.

 

I would suggest a good rule of thumb is if you are drinking, don't drive and watch out for the morning after. (A couple of engineers in my department were caught on their to work the morning after a session. )

 

As had been pointed out there are so many factors that can influence how quickly you will be "safe" enough to drive. I'd suggest erring on the side of caution. If you get things wrong the minimum is a 12 month ban and a fine, a criminal record, having your DNA profile taken and increased insurance costs.

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This does not constitute legal advice and is not represented as a substitute for legal advice from an appropriately qualified person or firm.

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By the reponses so far have not conclusively said two glasses of wine is 30mg.

 

The burden of proof police have to make is beyond all reasonable doubt. All they have to go on is an admission in an interview under caution that the suspect had two glasses of wine before driving a car. The volume of the glass is not defined in the interview and neither is the length of time elapsed having those drinks and driving the car.

 

There is no positive test at the scene, but the police are building a case that two glasses of wine of unspecfied volume and an estimated one hour before admitting to driving a car is over the limit of 30mg.

 

Any comments?

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By the reponses so far have not conclusively said two glasses of wine is 30mg.

 

The burden of proof police have to make is beyond all reasonable doubt. All they have to go on is an admission in an interview under caution that the suspect had two glasses of wine before driving a car. The volume of the glass is not defined in the interview and neither is the length of time elapsed having those drinks and driving the car.

 

There is no positive test at the scene, but the police are building a case that two glasses of wine of unspecfied volume and an estimated one hour before admitting to driving a car is over the limit of 30mg.

 

Any comments?

 

Can I ask what you mean by '30mg'? If the road side test was negative, then why would the police be 'building a case'? Sorry but this is not making sence.

 

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It might be 35mg, Im just going by the expression prescribed limit.

 

Alphageek, she was arrested because she was tested when the police turned up at her home.

 

I am not sure this test is admissable because it was not while she was seen driving a car.

 

She may have had a drink after arriving home and before arrival of police.

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It might be 35mg, Im just going by the expression prescribed limit.

 

Alphageek, she was arrested because she was tested when the police turned up at her home.

 

I am not sure this test is admissable because it was not while she was seen driving a car.

 

She may have had a drink after arriving home and before arrival of police.

 

With respect, would'nt this be quicker if you told the whole story in the first place?

 

Why was she arrested at home? Has 'she' been involed in an accident or something? Don't forget that the police can use a blood sample to determine how much alcohol is present and for how long. It takes between 20 to 30 minutes for alcohol to be absorbed into the blood stream.

 

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It might be 35mg, Im just going by the expression prescribed limit.

 

Alphageek, she was arrested because she was tested when the police turned up at her home.

 

I am not sure this test is admissable because it was not while she was seen driving a car.

 

She may have had a drink after arriving home and before arrival of police.

You are attempting to use what is known as "the hip flask defence" If you google it, you should get some idea. But the police may attempt to calculate the amount of alcohol in her blood whilst she was driving.

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If the police are back-tracking from the time of the test to the time of the accident, then the amount drunk prior to the accident is irrelevant, surely. It could have been 2 glasses 1 hour prior or 3 glasses 2 hours prior. I suspect that the amount could be used as supporting evidence. ie. "Our calculation shows she was over the limit, M'lud. Additionally, the calculation is in line with what she says she drank (plus she's probably telling fibs and drank more than she said)".

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I see the law is that to prove innocence, the drinker has to prove this:

 

 

(b) that had he not [drunk alcohol after the event] the proportion of alcohol in his breath, blood or urine would not have exceeded the prescribed limit and, if the proceedings are for an offence under section 4 of that Act, would not have been such as to impair his ability to drive properly.

 

 

Section 15(3):

 

 

Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 (c. 53)

 

 

This article suggests you need an independent toxicologist report:

 

The "Hip Flask" Defence -Post Incident Drinking

 

This is maybe why the police on the reality telly always look smug when they catch a drink driver at home with a bottle in hand.

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If your looking for a defensive response, then I would go on the assumption that two glasses of wine would be 175ml each at a total of 350ml of wine. I would also go on the basis of being 12% ABV. That's more a best case scenario and my assumption after being a wine waiter.

 

This would take the units of alcohol to 4.2 units which can then work out the BAC. Your looking at it needing to be below 35 mu g per 100ml or 0.08%

 

I used a website: BAC Calculator | Blood Alcohol Content Calculator | BAC Calculator

 

Average data comes out to about 0.069% on a best case scenario (Below 0.08% is legal). If your looking at 14% wine or large glasses of wine then you will defiantly be over the legal limit after 1h

Ex-Retail Manager who is happy to offer helpful advise in many consumer problems based on my retail experience. Any advise I do offer is my opinion and how I understand the law.

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(Sorry for change of name, pw for my original stopped working).

 

With respect, would'nt this be quicker if you told the whole story in the first place?

 

The suspect was apprehended by another motorist and two other men all white mid 30’s, in a side road and accused her hitting his car. The other motorist or one of his accomplices snatched her car keys from her car and she went home fearing she was about to me attacked. It was dark about 7pm. She lives 431 paced yards from the incident and left the car behind.

 

The police later arrived at her home with her car kays and arrested her with drink driving. Police said they looked at the car but no evidence of accident damage. She was taken to a Police station (9.3 miles away 26 minutes non-stop with no traffic) and tested at 95mgs at 10.40pm and charged under S5 of the Road Traffic Offenders Act 98mg. She was bailed to appear before Magistrates. She admits on her tape interview having two glasses of wine but the volume of the glass is unspecified on the tape, and neither is the length of time between drinking the wine and driving the car to the site where the car keys were snatched. No police offers have seen her driving a car.

 

The person who snatched the keys has not been charged under Section 15 of the heft Act 1968 and no explanation has been offered.

 

She thinks she will goto prison, very nervous, sleepless nights, 70 years old, just had double hip replacement, zimmer frame etc.

 

Why was she arrested at home? Has 'she' been involed in an accident or something? Don't forget that the police can use a blood sample to determine how much alcohol is present and for how long. It takes between 20 to 30 minutes for alcohol to be absorbed into the blood stream.

 

There are no blood tests, just a breathaliser machine which gave a till receipt showing a test result and an actual result.

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I see the law is that to prove innocence, the drinker has to prove this:

 

I just had a read of the link, a bit over my head.

 

Does it mean the burden of proof Beyond all Reasonable Doubt in criminal proceedings has been reppealed?

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