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  1. Hello, I am seeking a little advice as to my rights. Basically I would like to know if my job title and description etc should be a true representation of the position acknowledged to be held and job function performed. Me employment began back in November 2014 in certain position. Within a number of months I was transferred to a different department and position. This was done with no input from myself. There is a little bit of a back story here too. Since then, and several documented requests for my title and description to be reevaluated they remain unchanged and reflect the position I was originally hired to undertake and bear no relevance to duties etc now performed. This came to bear some significance recently when some new positions were announced. Not knowing exactly what my position is I felt quite disadvantaged. I was unsure if any of the new positions would potentially be a career advancement or if I would again be better seeking clarification on my own position. Again I raised this question and explained my feelings I was told that it would be looked into and that if nothing heard within two weeks to re-approach. Couple of points here : This put it beyond the closing date for some of the positions applications leaving me unsure if I would be better off applying for some of these positions or persisting in attempting to gain clarity on existing position. Most of the new positions make reference to position I fulfill. I am the only person who performs this role. The two week time period has elapsed with no update despite a request being made. Others within the company who have changed position and moved departments all appear to have had titles etc amended to reflect this. Advice appreciated.
  2. Hi, I don't do Facebook so I have started a thread on the MoneySavingExpert forum - The Acenden (administered mortgage) Escape Committee in the section called "Mortgage Free Wannabe" (I can't post links here yet). - Acenden have apparently recommenced selling mortgages on behalf of their new owners. Do join me there. I will post more information on that new thread in a while, eg about the danger signs that indicate that Acenden means to repossess. Everyone's case is unique but there are things we can to help each other get clear of these cowboys.
  3. HI My Fiancé has been working at a particular company for four years and for the first two years he has been working as a warehouse assistant, until he was given an opportunity to go for training and given a formal education background for procurement officer, where he was awarded certificates for. He has now been working as a procurement officer for two years yet his job title hasn't been changed nor his salary, so basically he is being used as cheap labour. He has approached management, and HR and to date nothing has happened to change the situation, what is a way to go about this predicament, as it's been going on for two years now.
  4. Hi all. I joined this forum to see if I can get any advice on a fairly complex problem I have been left with as the result of a very messy divorce. So apologies in advance for such a tedious first post. I got divorced in 2007. Pre divorce the property was in my sole name as adding my wife to the mortgage application would have diminished what we could borrow as her income was very low compared to mine. The divorce was a prolonged one and some elements regarding child issues are still ongoing. I have lost count of the number of court hearings I have had but it would be between 15 and 20. My ex-wife has refused mediation throughout and so we have been repeatedly forced back into court. The financial settlement left my now ex-wife living in the house with 60% of the title. Unfortunately she refused to go on the mortgage. Despite many attempts to persuade her including legal efforts she refused and eventually I was forced to add her to the title but not the mortgage. My divorce had been an expensive one and I just couldn't afford the legal fees any more. I had been paying the mortgage and the terms of the divorce left me doing this. The repayments varied from around £1600 per month up to £2300 per month. Subsequent to all of this and largely as a result of the divorce and the costs of supporting 2 homes I went bankrupt. Post bankruptcy my ex-wife approached the official receiver and, without informing me, bought my beneficial interest in the property. She was able to do this as she was the one who was resident in the house and had arranged valuations. I didn't find out this had been done until several months later. All of this left me in the position of having sole liability for the mortgage but none of the title. Throughout all of this I kept the mortgage company informed as to what was happening and, when they refused to get involved or to take any steps to enforce their own mortgage terms, sent them a letter explaining that they were failing in their duty of care to me. Post bankruptcy my ex-wife back-tracked on her refusal to go on the mortgage and asked me to arrange to have her name added. Of course by this time our situation meant that the mortgage company would no longer agree to add her name. Shortly after my bankruptcy the mortgage payments were switched to interest only. This brought the payments down to a level that my ex-wife could afford. This was necessary as I was no longer in a position where I could afford the repayments. The mortgage is due to revert to a repayment basis in a 2 months and neither my ex-wife nor I will be able to afford the payments. I informed my ex-wife of this and her response was simply to say I needed to ask to have the interest only period extended. This I refused to do without both of us seeking advice first. My reasons for this were both pragmatic, I doubted that the mortgage company would extend the interest only period as neither my wife nor I (any longer) had incomes that would support the mortgage, and also personal as I didn't want this to hang over me indefinitely. At any rate the situation is a mess and my feeling is that we'd both be best served by getting sensible advice. My ex-wife has since refused to seek advice or to discuss anything other than extending the interest only period. She simply ignores any of my attempts to communicate. There is probably now some equity in the house if she sells but if the mortgage is allowed to go unpaid arrears and legal fees will erode this to nothing. The price realised by repossession is likely to make this even worse. I need advice on what I should do about this or suggestions as to where I can go to get help. I can no longer afford the legal fees needed to get a property lawyer involved and obvious routes like the Citizen's Advice Bureau, Shelter etc. have been tried and proved fruitless. The situation is simply too complex for them to know what can be done. I don't want to simply leave this to fall apart as can't see how anyone can benefit from having the house repossessed rather than sold. I've probably forgotten detail that is relevant so please feel free to ask for explanations or clarifications. Many thanks!
  5. Good morning, I would really appreciate some assistance if possible. I am currently in the process of selling a property. The land registry title contains three restrictions, two of which are in my name and one in my ex-partners name, with the property being in joint names. My conveyancer has written to all three creditors listed on the title requesting settlement figures. We are currently waiting for their responses. However, I have since found out that one particular creditor, namely, ‘Shoosmiths’ have since passed on my debt/details to ‘Eversheds’ for some reason. I only found this out yesterday after contacting Shoosmiths asking why things were taking so long. I passed this information onto my conveyancer, who is obviously waiting for an official response of sorts. Can anybody please tell me how this will impact on the sale proceedings? Will Eversheds need to apply to have their name put on the title before any further progress can be made or can they simply ride on the back of Shoosmiths? Many thanks, Borris
  6. Hi, I had my home repossessed and its now been sold, there is a small surplus of funds available after the mortgage and arrears and costs have been accounted for, but the banks solicitors wont release the funds to me because one of my middle names is incorrect on the title deed, I was made aware of this back in 2005 and attempted to get it corrected but it was at a time where I was working all over the country trying to get my business established and as the land registry wanted me to fax my request over to them I used the business fax and they sent forms to the business address and not the home address so I never seen them, and being busy working long days it slipped my mind. When at court I told the solicitor representing Halifax that one of the middle names is incorrect and I was actually told that does not matter, I suppose it wouldn't matter to them for clawing back their asset, but when it means handing dosh over it matters big time, I bet if there was a shortfall after the sale they wouldn't have any problems chasing me for money even though the name is wrong I have sent them a Statutory Declaration (witnessed by a solicitor) explaining how the name error came about, My valid passport, a Bank statement in my name showing the mortgage role number, a copy of the letter from Land Registry showing that I attempted to correct this error back in 2005, and a covering letter explaining it all again. I used my passport and Birth Certificate as proof for the purchase, but the solicitors I used ceased trading in 1997 so I cant get access to a copy of the documentation. What I would like to know is do they have a right to withhold releasing the funds to me even though I have provided what I can to them to show how the error happened and proof of my ID, the last letter I had from them was that they may send the money to court and it would be up to the court to release the funds. Cheers
  7. Hi. New to this forum. Need help from anybody who can offer assistance. I bought a car from a guy who had the title, but it was in someone else's name. That someone else, we'll call him "Charlie" had sold the car to "Joe", and apparently "Joe" sold the car to the guy who sold to me. "Charlie" signed the title release, but his name was on the back of the title as a personal lienholder because "Joe" bought it on a payment agreement. Nobody had transferred the vehicle into their name after "Charlie." When I went to the Dept of Motor Vehicles to transfer the vehicle into my name, the DMV said they needed "Charlie," (who was still in the system as the last title holder) to sign a release of interest form. We tracked down "Charlie" and although he originally said he was willing to help us, changed his mind and said he couldn't help after all. I don't trust the guy who sold us the car to provide any info about the prior transactions. I haven't ruled out taking anybody to court if I have a right to, since it appears like fraud for someone to sell a vehicle that they don't legally own. But I'm not a lawyer. Can you offer any suggestions on how to fix this? Thanks.
  8. Hello I was wondering if you could provide me with a bit of advice with a mortgage matter that I am working on. I recently became concerned about the terms of my mortgage, and the way that it has bene setup. I want to get some clarity on a few things regarding my mortgage, so I looked through all the documenst that I have relating to the mortgage, but couldn't find a copy of the mortgage contract. I decided to use the data protection act to do a few requests from my mortgage lending bank. I asked for the original signed contract which says what I have to pay back, and I also asked for the accounting for the mortgage from the beginnning of the mortgage up until the present (around a years worth). they replied back within a reasonable amount of time, and sent me quite a few bits of information (I sent the letter to the Director of Mortgages, and she replied back herself). Within the information they sent back was a letter saying how much they had lent me, and the terms of repayment etc, and it was signed by someone working with the mortgage bank, however there was no agreement signed by myself contained within all of the information they sent back. In fact, there was nothing that had been signed by myself contained within all of the information they sent. They also sent me the accounting information that I requested. The accounting was in a format that was legible, but it was far below the standard that I would expect from a reputable bank, but that however isn't the main point. The accounting showed that at the inception of the my mortgage account there was a deficit to the amount that the bank claimed to have lent me. For the sake of explanation I'll put a round figure on it and say that the balance of the account at the inception was -£100k pounds. Now, this seemed odd to me as what I would have expected to see was either the balance being zero at the start of the account (as I presume all account balances begin as) then the next entry would show £100,000 being credited to the account (from the bank's main funds), or at the very least the account would start with £100,000 in it, which would then have gone out of the account in the next entry. Having received the information I sent two letters back to the bank. the first asked for the signed contract. I reminded them that this was requested in the original data protection act request, and they still had up to until a certain date to send me the information requested, or inform me that they didn't have it. Up until now I still haven't heard anything back from them regarding this letter (they currently have eight days left to reply to this one). The second letter I sent was just a query, not under the data protection act, querying the accounting information that they sent me, and putting over my concerns that I outlined above. They replied back to this letter (again from the Director of Mortgages), and in the letter it says that -£100,000 is record of the 'mortgage advance', and it re-iterates/confirms that the account opened with a balance of zero (or 'nil' to use the exact terminology of the letter). This has led me to ask the question...if the account started with no money in it (zero balance) how could they lend me any 'money' from it? If I have a box where I usually keep some money, and that box is empty then I cannot lend my friend £100 from it. (I understand accounts can have overdrafts, but that is essentially a loan from the bank). This all seems very fishy to me, and after thinking long and hard about the situation I do not think it is right for me to be paying hundreds of pounds every month to a company who cannot even provide me signed terms of the mortgage agreement, and cannot even prove that they have lent me any money in the first place. I think the best thing for me to do would be to get the mortgage voided. I know that there are two issues with this - number one, the mortgaging bank wanting me to continue paying them (I am happy to if they can provide the full information that I have requested, and I will write them a letter outlining this, but I will also tell them that they cannot expect payments, and I will not pay, if they can't produce such simple information that I am lawfully entitled to seeing). Number two, even if I stop paying they have a Charge on the title to my property, put in in-case of default in payment. If it turns out that they cannot provide me with the full information, What do you think would be the best way of removing the charge on my property title?
  9. My father has died and the joint property needs to pass in title to my mother. There is already a good chain of title with two conveyances dating back to early 1960s and a good abstract of title so it would seem that all that is needed is a transfer of title from him to her. Is there a standard form of deed that can be executed under seal to do this? Are the parties the executors of.... as transferor and the wife as transferee. It sounds easy to do without a solicitor but where can you get the deed? Would there be any advantage in registering this as registered land at the same time?
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