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    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.    Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.   The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved.  Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
    • You can use a family's address.   The only caveat is for the final hearing you'd need to be there in person   HOWEVER i'd expect them to pay if its only £200 because costs of attending will be higher than that
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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

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      It would be very nice if the parcel delivery companies – including EVRi – practised this kind of thing as well.

       

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Sick pay help


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I have a couple of questions,

 

A company's policy on sick pay entitlement is as follows -

 

 

During probationary period Zero

 

Completed probationary period

and up to one year's service 2 weeks full pay

 

During 2nd and 3rd year of

service 6 weeks full pay

 

During 4th and 5th year of

service 12 weeks full pay

 

Firstly can someone tell me if that phrase 'completed probationary period and up to one year's service' means you start counting from the start of employment or from the end of the probationary period please?

 

And next is there anything, if service has been continuous, which could mean an employee does not move into the next bracket on the appropriate anniversary?

 

There is a further table on the contract for shift workers, same periods of employment but then sick pay is given in shifts and after this table it says 'once you have exhausted your sickness entitlement in any 12 month rolling period you will no longer accrue the right to further sick pay again until you have been back at work for a continuous period of 26 weeks'. This makes total sense for that table because of the nature of the employment but there's nothing to say this doesn't apply to both types of employee. Does this mean if you use up your entitlement, go back to work and five months later have a day off with eg a migraine you go back to square one and unless you do six months full attendance at some point you will never again accrue entitlement to sick pay?

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I have a couple of questions,

 

A company's policy on sick pay entitlement is as follows -

 

 

During probationary period Zero

 

Completed probationary period

and up to one year's service 2 weeks full pay

 

During 2nd and 3rd year of

service 6 weeks full pay

 

During 4th and 5th year of

service 12 weeks full pay

 

Firstly can someone tell me if that phrase 'completed probationary period and up to one year's service' means you start counting from the start of employment or from the end of the probationary period please?

 

And next is there anything, if service has been continuous, which could mean an employee does not move into the next bracket on the appropriate anniversary?

 

There is a further table on the contract for shift workers, same periods of employment but then sick pay is given in shifts and after this table it says 'once you have exhausted your sickness entitlement in any 12 month rolling period you will no longer accrue the right to further sick pay again until you have been back at work for a continuous period of 26 weeks'. This makes total sense for that table because of the nature of the employment but there's nothing to say this doesn't apply to both types of employee. Does this mean if you use up your entitlement, go back to work and five months later have a day off with eg a migraine you go back to square one and unless you do six months full attendance at some point you will never again accrue entitlement to sick pay?

 

 

Your first question is answered thus: from month 4 to month 12, inclusive.

 

Second question: based upon information posted here - no.

 

The third question: I would imagine it is only for shift workers if it there is a separate section in the policy/contract just for shift workers, although the employer may have intended this applies to all staff. It is, after all, quite common to have such restrictions and I would be very surprised if they don’t cover all staff.

 

Finally: yes.

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Thank you for such a swift answer. You have all the information I have and I believe it to be complete :)

So, if the accounting period spans an anniversary is the employee entitled to the enhanced entitlement for that period after the anniversary? This makes a difference as to whether they did or didn't use up their entitlement - hence my questions.

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Thank you for such a swift answer. You have all the information I have and I believe it to be complete :)

So, if the accounting period spans an anniversary is the employee entitled to the enhanced entitlement for that period after the anniversary? This makes a difference as to whether they did or didn't use up their entitlement - hence my questions.

 

I would say yes, that does appear to be the case but I would recommend you ask your HR Dept directly for clarification.

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Not my HR disgruntled - I'm long retired :) I really am asking for someone else and it's HR causing the problem. There has been a lot of employee 'sickness' over the last few months in this particular company due to truly extraordinary circumstances and they are now looking to claw back what they claim are overpayments in sick pay. They can pick their accounting period and they don't appear to be taking any account of the anniversary increment.

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Well just got a further update and it is the 26 week rule which is crucifying one employee. They used up their entitlement three years ago and have only had the odd day off here and there since (5 in total) but these have never been more than six months apart.

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Well just got a further update and it is the 26 week rule which is crucifying one employee. They used up their entitlement three years ago and have only had the odd day off here and there since (5 in total) but these have never been more than six months apart.

 

Well, them’s the rules...

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Agreed. The circumstances leading to this year's absences are such that the company paid sick pay because it would have looked very bad if they hadn't at the time. Nasty though to do so with the intent of clawing it back later when things quieten down.

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Maybe there is a history of abuse?

 

I know an employer who was fed up with three or four persistent abusers of a very generous sick pay clause. The employer simply changed everybody’s contract (legally, I might add) to vastly reduce the allowances.

 

Had it been me I would have dismissed the offenders and left the rest of the staff to their responsible attitude towards sickness.

 

Whilst not wishing to presume, is it possible this particular employee is taking the p155? I mean taking the odd day off here and there and never more than six months apart smells very much like swinging the lead to me.

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Not just one employee and truly exceptional circumstances - a one off.

The odd days off, a couple a year are various but two were hospital full day investigations. The increase in entitlement anniversary appears to be helping another employee.

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Not just one employee and truly exceptional circumstances - a one off.

The odd days off, a couple a year are various but two were hospital full day investigations. The increase in entitlement anniversary appears to be helping another employee.

 

Hospital investigations are not sick leave, and shouldn't be claimed as such. Time off for medical appointments is unpaid unless the employer says otherwise - but not sick pay. Generally, the majority of employers would expect a full day for medical appointments to be taken as unpaid leave or annual leave.

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In which case those days should be clawed back by the company as overpayments? Forgive me for double checking but this could work to the benefit of the employee so are you absolutely sure? Employees tell their line manager why they won't be at work so booking the day as sick leave isn't done by the employee themselves - it will have been a mistake by line managers or HR.

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Have you checked every piece of paper associated with that policy for the word “discretionary “?

 

Did the employee have the option to book holiday but chose another option? How exactly was the leave booked? Did they have available holiday days at the time?

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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did they even ASK? first thing I would have done, they might well have been given the time off as discretionary if it was for something that might well become a disability issue later down the line.

MY employer would usually not count hospital days but visits to the dentist would require you to make the time up over the next month

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did they even ASK? first thing I would have done, they might well have been given the time off as discretionary

Nobody would have thought to ask at the time - these odd days wouldn't have been an issue after all even if they were logged wrongly. It's only when a large amount of time off is needed later on which could trigger a threshold it's causing a problem for people.

 

MY employer would usually not count hospital days but visits to the dentist would require you to make the time up over the next month

Not unreasonable if possible and productive. In some situations though it's not easy to 'make time up'. Requiring someone to sit at their desk for a couple of hours just for the sake of it wouldn't be of any use to anyone.

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Did the employee have the option to book holidayicon but chose another option? How exactly was the leave booked? Did they have available holiday days at the time?

I think (fairly sure) they would tell their line manager they'd be off that day and never even think to make a point of asking how it was booked on the system.

 

It does make sense for that person to check whether they used up their holiday entitlement for that period - something which is highly unlikely.

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well, clearly they are in warm water over this, if not hot water so although it may not be possible to undo what is done it makes sense to clarify the position for the future.

making up time is more than sitting at a desk in almost every job I have ever done and that includes working in factories on a shift system. making up time then would hve included the moving of stock around the factory, inventory, cleaning down etc, all stuff that would normally be doneinside usual working hours but by doing them as extra duties make the rest of the week more productive. Sometimes the willingness is enough and then you get the nod to go home without completing the necessary hours

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In which case those days should be clawed back by the company as overpayments? Forgive me for double checking but this could work to the benefit of the employee so are you absolutely sure? Employees tell their line manager why they won't be at work so booking the day as sick leave isn't done by the employee themselves - it will have been a mistake by line managers or HR.

Yes, quite sure. Sick leave is defined as a period of time that you are sick. It is important because sickness equally relates to SSP claims - not just occupational sick pay. It's a "right" that works in reverse - there is actually no right at all to time off for medical appointments of any kind. So technically the employer can refuse permission to be absent from work. But with hospital appointments, few employers would refuse because they understand that they cannot be scheduled in workers own time. So it is "made" into your time, either by not paying you or by your taking annual leave. Going to hospital is not an illness! A stay in hospital results from sickness, but it is the condition that is the sickness, not the hospital. The easiest way to differentiate is to say "would you otherwise be going to work on that day?" - if only the appointment is preventing you from going to work, you are clearly not sick!

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But, claiming sick pay for a hospital appointment when not sick could land up in a whole other bunch of problems. So please can you clarify exactly how the time off was booked and what was said; your opinion I am afraid is not robust enough.

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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Ps I also asked if the word discretionary was in the policy etc... may have missed it, did you reply?

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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I'd have to check with the individual what exactly was said but I am pretty sure they'd just have told their line manager they needed to book a day off for a hospital appointment. They would have no reason to check (or even care at the time) how their line manager then entered it on a system. It wouldn't have crossed their minds for an instant to bother about anything but letting someone know.

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I'd have to check with the individual what exactly was said but I am pretty sure they'd just have told their line manager they needed to book a day off for a hospital appointment. They would have no reason to check (or even care at the time) how their line manager then entered it on a system. It wouldn't have crossed their minds for an instant to bother about anything but letting someone know.

 

Please do check, and also the precise policy wording. Third time of asking - is there a reason you are not answering please?

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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