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    • Hi,  It has been a long time but I have had confirmation claim will proceed to hearing in roughly 1 months time.  I was wondering if anyone could advise on defence please.  A few questions I have are: 1) I didn't notify VCS that I was not the driver of the vehicle and the judge may look negatively on this point.  I did not receive any direction in correspondence from VCS  that I should inform them if I was not the driver and that was going to be the foundation for may argument on this point. 2) The vehicle is stopped at a zebra crossing.  Based on the images from VCS for around 10 seconds.  At that time there is someone standing near the zebra crossing and someone else enters my vehicle.  I was going to raise the point that stopping at a zebra crossing when someone is standing near it is to be expected.  I was also going to ask the question how you can have a no stopping zone when there are zebra crossings where the driver is required to stop. 3) The no stopping zone is clearly signposted, however, no drop off or pickup is not clearly signposted with one small sign at the zebra crossing, parallel to the road and on the passengers side.  I was going to challenge that no-drop off or pickup is clearly signposted.  4) VCS mentioned my initial defence was generic and clearly copied from the internet.  It covered 1) Claimant not being in a position to state if the Defendant was the driver at the time.  2) No evidence that claimant's contract with landowner supersedes byelaws & signage isn't legally binding contract. 3) No contractual costs and interest cannot be accrued on speculative charge. I am interested to know if anyone has had success or been unsuccessful with this 'generic' defence. 5) If I should submit an updated defence to the court based on questions 1, 2 & 3.  Or if it is better to only raise these points in court? Thanks.  Any guidance would be appreciated  
    • I honestly don't know, Baz. In addition what I don't  understand (from that pamphlet) is this: The s88 criteria are quite clear and don't need a medical professional to interpret them . The one most relevant to his topic says that an application is not a "qualifying application" if a relevant disability has been declared. The problem with the word "may" is how does the applicant establish whether me "may" driver under s88 when he has not complied with its conditions? I don't know the answer to that either. But to further muddy the waters, the pamphlet says this (about : But the s88 statute says absolutely nothing like that at all. It simply says that if you have declared a relevant disability s88 does not apply. The DVLA pamphlet is simply confusing as far as I can see. That's actually my opinion and that's what I would stick to if it was me making the application. But I'll seek a few opinions from others over the next couple of days.
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What is law regarding separation of co-habiting partners


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She wants to do things fair, he gave her £15k depo to help her out and some type of contract was written up but he has taken her copy

 

Then she needs to get a lawyer to request a copy of the contract.

 

She could sell her place with no major comeback

Without a copy of the contract this is only an assumption.

 

he cannot sell their house without her agreement....So i think she must be in a stronger position

 

Again this is only an assumption, without the contract you don't know this. He put the majority of money into the purchase of this property (the one where they both lived). This will not be split 50/50 as they are not married.

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Please note opinions given by rory32 are offered informally as a lay-person in good faith based on personal experience. For legal advice, you must always consult a registered and insured lawyer.

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She owns the flat outright & unless there was an agreement to pay interest then all he would be entitled to is his original 15K & no more

 

As for the jointly owned property as has been stated it depends on how it is owned whether jointly or as tenants in common.

 

If jointly he may be able to recover his intial investment & divide the rest 50/50 If tenants in common & in eother case it's not recorded as otherwise then it will be assumed they own 50% each

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She owns the flat outright & unless there was an agreement to pay interest then all he would be entitled to is his original 15K & no more

 

As for the jointly owned property as has been stated it depends on how it is owned whether jointly or as tenants in common.

 

If jointly he may be able to recover his intial investment & divide the rest 50/50 If tenants in common & in either case it's not recorded as otherwise then it will be assumed they own 50% each

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Just to add to my last post, a friend of mine split from his partner a couple of years ago. As he was the one who had put down a sizeable deposit on the property (several 10's of thousands) and had a higher income and contributed more to everything, she was legally entitled to nothing from the sale of the house as they were not married.

 

This is quite a complicated part of the law and I am not saying that this will be the case in this matter, but your friend does need to seek proper legal advice ASAP.

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BEWARE OF CLAIMS MANAGEMENT COMPANIES OFFERING TO WRITE OFF YOUR DEBTS.

 

 

Please note opinions given by rory32 are offered informally as a lay-person in good faith based on personal experience. For legal advice, you must always consult a registered and insured lawyer.

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She owns the flat outright & unless there was an agreement to pay interest then all he would be entitled to is his original 15K & no more

 

As for the jointly owned property as has been stated it depends on how it is owned whether jointly or as tenants in common.

 

If jointly he may be able to recover his intial investment & divide the rest 50/50 If tenants in common & in eother case it's not recorded as otherwise then it will be assumed they own 50% each

 

That's what I thought as well JonCris....

 

I think in this case though, a lot might rest in what's in this contract that he's holding on to though. Can your friend remember what it was that she agreed to ?

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Just to add to my last post, a friend of mine split from his partner a couple of years ago. As he was the one who had put down a sizeable deposit on the property (several 10's of thousands) and had a higher income and contributed more to everything, she was legally entitled to nothing from the sale of the house as they were not married.

 

 

Rory, to have come away with absolutely nothing.... she can't have been on the deeds. That's my understanding of it anyway.

 

:)

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He had a very good lawyer. Female I might add.

HAVE YOU BEEN TREATED UNFAIRLY BY CREDITORS OR DCA's?

 

BEWARE OF CLAIMS MANAGEMENT COMPANIES OFFERING TO WRITE OFF YOUR DEBTS.

 

 

Please note opinions given by rory32 are offered informally as a lay-person in good faith based on personal experience. For legal advice, you must always consult a registered and insured lawyer.

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If the OC's friend is registered at the LR & the mortgage is in joint names then she will be entited to 50%. She may even be entitled to 50% of the total sum which includes his deposit.

 

As for her SOLE property he is NOT entitled to a single penny over & above the 15K unless she claims the 15K was a gift then he's got a fight on his hands proving otherwise

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If the OC's friend is registered at the LR & the mortgage is in joint names then she will be entited to 50%. She may even be entitled to 50% of the total sum which includes his deposit.

 

As for her SOLE property he is NOT entitled to a single penny over & above the 15K unless she claims the 15K was a gift then he's got a fight on his hands proving otherwise

 

Relief !! Not that I'm in a similar situation or anything.... but you never know what life's going to throw back at you ! :rolleyes:

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As for her SOLE property he is NOT entitled to a single penny over & above the 15K unless she claims the 15K was a gift then he's got a fight on his hands proving otherwise

 

Depending on what was in this missing contract and what is registered.

Consumer Health Forums - where you can discuss any health or relationship matters.

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Depending on what was in this missing contract and what is registered.

Exactly. Without a copy of the contract it is all speculation.

HAVE YOU BEEN TREATED UNFAIRLY BY CREDITORS OR DCA's?

 

BEWARE OF CLAIMS MANAGEMENT COMPANIES OFFERING TO WRITE OFF YOUR DEBTS.

 

 

Please note opinions given by rory32 are offered informally as a lay-person in good faith based on personal experience. For legal advice, you must always consult a registered and insured lawyer.

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As for her SOLE property he is NOT entitled to a single penny over & above the 15K unless she claims the 15K was a gift then he's got a fight on his hands proving otherwise

 

Depends on the circumstances and what agreements have been entered into. My partner is selling her house, her father paid the deposit - but is entitled to receive back a %age of the value of the house, not just the deposit which was paid at the time. If there is a similar agreement then he could be entitled to more than the £15k - e.g. £15k was put towards house valued at £50k, house now worth £100k he would be entitled to £30k back.

 

All this is assuming deeds are not in joint names - the details available from the OP are somewhat sketchy.

Opinions given herein are made informally by myself as a lay-person in good faith based on personal experience. For legal advice you must always consult a registered and insured lawyer.

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Depends on the circumstances and what agreements have been entered into. My partner is selling her house, her father paid the deposit - but is entitled to receive back a %age of the value of the house, not just the deposit which was paid at the time. If there is a similar agreement then he could be entitled to more than the £15k - e.g. £15k was put towards house valued at £50k, house now worth £100k he would be entitled to £30k back.

 

Your partner's father wouldn't be entitled to half though... which is what OP was asking.

 

All this is assuming deeds are not in joint names - the details available from the OP are somewhat sketchy.

 

The deeds were not joint on this one.... but they were joint on the one that's being sold. The partner already sold his place previously and put down a sizeable deposit on the joint property, whereas she put in nothing.... and now the joint property is being sold. She still has her own property seperate to this however, which is in her sole name only.

All this aside.... a lot hinges on this contract that he has. :cool:

 

 

:)

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Your partner's father wouldn't be entitled to half though... which is what OP was asking.

 

No, she wasn't asking anything at all about my partner's father. It all depends on what agreement has been entered into - he may be entitled to £15k, he may be entitled to X%, he may be entitled to 50% - it really all depends on the agreement.

 

The deeds were not joint on this one

 

Really? You seem to know more than the OP.

 

somekind of contract is written up !! Not sure of the contents

 

We don't know what's been signed by whom, and whether this is linked to whose names are on the deeds.

Opinions given herein are made informally by myself as a lay-person in good faith based on personal experience. For legal advice you must always consult a registered and insured lawyer.

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If both parties are on the mortgage then they must both be registered at the LR as owners & if they aren't then the mortgage would not have been granted to both of them.

 

But it doesn't mean that they have to be registered on th deeds 50/50

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only if tenants in common -if beneficial then courts deem as a starting point that the intention is to give each party 50% interest regardless of who put larger deposit or paid higher mortgage.

You may receive different advice to your query as people have different experiences and opinions. Please use your own judgement in deciding whose advice to take.

 

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court bundles for dummies

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Agreed Josie & if the deed/contract entered into at the time of purchase by both parties is considerably prejudicial to one of those parties the court could set any such agreement aside.

 

This would most certainly apply if either one of those parties didn't seek legal advice before signing

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  • 2 weeks later...
Guest TractorGirl

Hi All

 

I would like to say thank-you to most people on this thread. This is an update on the situation

 

They have decided to go 50/50 on everything including the contents. He has already requested the TV - What a Loser !!!

 

The joint house is sold and she is moving into her place later in the year. She will come out with about £20k in her pocket

 

This is the best situation for all involved but at least my mate has her own property to move into, whereas he has to move back to Mummy's whilst he finds a place......I know this sounds bitchy, but he has made his bed and now he's gotta lie in it.

 

Oh and FYI, this contract still hasn't appeared

 

And hopefully she has now learned the lesson to get contracts written up always read them and bloody keep a copy

 

xx

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  • 2 months later...
Guest TractorGirl

The Joint house sale was complete last Tuesday and she has now moved into her place with £15k in her pocket but most of this is now being swallowed up by DIY jobbies.......But she is really happy

 

Thanks once again

 

xx

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