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    • An update to this case as I’ve not been on in a while.    I am still awaiting a charging decision in the case. The two police officers involved have said their personal belief is a section 47 ABH charge is the most likely outcome but this isn’t a sure thing of course.    The EA certificate from the issuing court has now lapsed. The court have refused to recertify him until they’ve had a hearing in to the case, and the district judge has issued orders to surrender all evidence, footage, photos etc.    I have done so promptly.    the EA, not so much . Equita have claimed they cannot provide his bodycam footage as the camera he was wearing is the EA personal one not one of theirs.   the EA has claimed he has asked Equita and the police for the footage as he claims he doesn’t have it.    the police have confirmed they didn’t seize his camera and they don’t have it.    so they are basically pointing the finger at each other all the while failing to comply with the district judges order to provide all evidence they intend to rely on at the rescheduled hearing.    The district judge has stated the hearing for his certification will NOT be the hearing for my complaint as there is no charge as of yet, and just as to whether he should be recertified or not.    I’m not 100% on why that can’t be done at the time, but I’m not about to question a judge…..      
    • Thanks FTMDave, I like the cut of your jib - I'll go with that and obtain proof of postage. Encouraging that NPE have never followed through and seem to blowing hot air, let's see where they go after this   Regards
    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
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Deed of Assignment


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Does a document purporting to be a Deed of Assignment have to explicitly mention the account being assigned or can the Deed merely refer to a batch of accounts that are being assigned?

 

Additionally, what would be the effect on the Deed of Assignment if a bank mistakenly sold a loan account and an overdraft account as a single overdraft account? (hope that's clear)

 

In other words they rolled both into one and labelled it an overdraft.

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This issue is not related to my other thread.

 

I've now had time to read what they sent.

 

1. It is two separate documents

 

2. The first document is headed "Account Sale Agreement" and appears to be no more than an offer to sell. It lays down the conditions of the sale and even mentions that the sale will involve assignment of all rights but crucially it doesn't appear to me to be a Deed of Assignment. It ends with a summary of the account sale and states that the date of sale will be close of business on the 5/10/07 and is signed only by HSBC. Dated 5/10/07

 

3. The second document is an agreement between Tessera Recoveries and Marlin Recoveries and may indeed be a Deed of Assignment. Dated 12/10/07

 

4.Another annomally appears to be that the copy of the notice of assignment purporting to come from HSBC gives the date of assignment as the 12/10/07 which is the date of the purported assignment between Tessera and Marlin and not the date of the purported assignment between HSBC and Tessera.

 

Any thoughts on this one?

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What is the DOA worth.Mine only has written date dec on front then loads of tech terms with a date of 1998 when GE and CL ENTERED INTO AN AGREEMENT,,,Nothing refers to the agreement they sent me in dates or names ,i hope someone comes along with more info

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Not sure what you're after, but the following is interesting. I believe the author was a respected figure on CAG.

 

 

 

DEEDS OF ASSIGNMENT FOR DEBTS – FURTHER INFORMATION

 

 

Many questions have arisen with regard to s.136 of the Law of Property Act 1925 (LPA 1925).

 

WHAT IS A DEED?

 

The definition of a DEED prior to 31 July 1990 used to be a formal document (instrument) which was signed, sealed and delivered. The “Seal” also was referred to as an “Indenture” – the wax seal to the instrument. Since the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1989, the formalities of a DEED is that the instrument should be identified on the face of it that is a “DEED”, be signed by the person executing it and, IMPORTANTLY: “Witnessed” by another party who attests (signs) to the signature of the executing party in the presence of the witness. There are further formalities when two witnesses are required; however I suggest the requirement that the DEED be signed in the presence of at least one “Witness” who also signs the DEED is particularly relevant to matters discussed in the forum.

 

WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN A DEED AND A WRITTEN CONTRACT?

The difference in contract law between an “Ordinary” contract and a contract under “DEED”, is basically that the former can be actioned upon (parties can be sued for failure to perform obligations created by the terms and conditions of the contract) for up to 6 years from the date of the breach or default. Whereas regarding a contract under DEED, this period is extended to 12 years.

 

I suspect that many will realise that 6 years is a recurring time period for many issues, such has how long financial institutions purport to retain records, the length of time Credit Reference Agencies retain rolling records (although which I believe is an agreed period of time between agencies but not a period stipulated by any legal right to do so – which is another debatable point), the length of time a County Court Judgement remains on the records with Registry Trust Ltd etc. Moreover, under an “Ordinary” contract the 6 year time period begins at the time of default or from any later time that an ADMISSION is made, e.g. a Debtor defaults and the Creditor does nothing to pursue the debt for 5 years but then contacts the Debtor who responds by making an offer to settle which is not accepted, then in those circumstances the 6 year period begins thereafter. In the case of a contract under DEED, the 12 year period would begin thereafter.

 

It should be noted that an “Ordinary” contract can be required to comply with further formalities over and above a basic contract formalities at common law, such as imposed under the Consumer Credit Act 1974 and, VERY IMPORTANTLY: under any subordinate legislation created under the Primary Act such as Statutory Instruments (SIs), also known as Regulations, Orders, Rules or Guidance which should always be consulted in order to understand the finer points of legislation as many thousands of SIs are enacted each year.

 

WHAT ARE DEEDS USED FOR?

 

It is a requirement that legal estates and interests in land must be granted by DEED, under s.52(1) of the LPA 1925. This is why when a house is purchased the DEED of transfer is witnessed – usually by a solicitor. The exchange of contracts is the formal service of the transfer DEEDS, the vendor signing their copy in the presence of their solicitor and the purchasers doing the same on the counterpart DEED with their solicitor / Licensed Conveyancer.

 

Other transactions are required to be made by DEED; a legal mortgage (s.85 LPA 1925) certain leases (s.86 LPA 1925) a charge of a legal mortgage (s.87 LPA 1925) and a DEED of arrangement when an insolvent debtor settles debts with a creditor which affects land as an alternative to the debtor declaring bankruptcy – the registration of a DEED of Arrangement warning potential purchasers of the land of the prior agreement. Also generally share dealings have formal requirements in DEEDS of transfer.

 

ARE DEEDS OF ASSIGNMENT USED FOR THE SALE OF DEBTS?

 

To the best of my knowledge, I do not believe that the sale of a debt (an Assignment) is required to be made under DEED. I suggest that the term: “DEED OF ASSIGNMENT” is used in a different sense with regard to the sale of debts and I further suggest that the formal transfer of the rights under a contract, whether in default or not, could be more accurately referred to as a “DOCUMENT OF ASSIGNMENT”.

 

It may be that financial institutions, purchasers of debts, debt collection companies etc. might refer to a “DEED OF ASSIGNMENT” due to the archaic legal term for a debt which can be assigned as a: “Chose in Action”. Furthermore this is why the LPA 1925 is the relevant statutory provision for the assignment of debts. I understand this has caused some confusion amongst many contributors. A “Chose in Action” is an intangible right other than relating to land – such as a debt, while a “Chose in Possession” is a tangible object, such as a car, books etc. In English Law, a “Chose in Action”, or in the plural: “Choses in Action”, are now known as a: “Thing in action” or “Things in action”.

 

BY WHAT METHOD IS A DEBT ASSIGNED?

 

As I have intimated in previous postings; s.136 of the LPA 1925 sets out the requirement for the legal assignment of legal debts, “Things in action”, thus:

 

“136 Legal assignments of things in action

 

(1) Any absolute assignment by writing under the hand of the assignor (not purporting to be by way of charge only) of any debt or other legal thing in action, of which express notice in writing has been given to the debtor, trustee or other person from whom the assignor would have been entitled to claim such debt or thing in action, is effectual in law (subject to equities having priority over the right of the assignee) to pass and transfer from the date of such notice—

 

(a) the legal right to such debt or thing in action;

(b) all legal and other remedies for the same; and

© the power to give a good discharge for the same without the concurrence of the assignor”.

 

Again, as intimated in previous postings, I believe it is settled at common law (case law made by judges using statutory interpretation as opposed to statutory law made by politicians) that a “Legal Assignment” is completed and has full effect at the time the debtor receives the Notice of Assignment and not the date when it is sent or posted by mail.

 

WHAT IS THE EFFECTIVE DIFFERENCE?

 

In the context of the forum discussion regarding “DEEDS OF ASSIGNMENT”; I suggest that a debtor who is informed that a debt has been assigned by DEED and the debtor requests a copy of said DEED as absolute proof of a legal assignment and subsequently a copy of a document of assignment is provided (although usually very begrudgingly) which enables the assignee to sue the debtor in the assignee’s own name (if the requirements of s.136 of the LPA 1925 are complied with) and it is found that the document of assignment is not a DEED as prescribed, then at the very least the debtor can plead that an incorrect statement has been made. This might have greater impact when a Statement of Truth has been filed by an assignee with the County Court in recovery proceedings and the accumulative effect with other lax practises might amount to “Unreasonable Behaviour” by an assignee litigant which can be brought to the attention of the Court.

 

In addition, I do not consider it unreasonable for a debtor to require confirmation of a legal assignment, particularly in the circumstances when a Notice of Assignment has not been received by a debtor – and the assignee, assignor or another party (e.g. a debt collection company) cannot produce any cogent evidence of the delivery of such a notice i.e. by Recorded or Special Delivery.

 

CONCLUSION

 

It is apparent from many postings that UK financial institutions are undertaking the bulk transfer of debts which are deemed difficult to recover, uneconomical to recover or considered unrecoverable. I suggest this trend has developed over the past few years in light of the general increased indebtedness of UK consumers and which has led to the growth and proliferation of secondary debt collection companies. Personally, I find this practice rather insidious as often when the initial collection procedures have failed and both in-house and external debt collection companies (in multiples on occasions) have not produced the required results from a debtor, who might not have the wherewithal to even make an offer of payment in discharge due to dire personal circumstances, the assignment of a debt will inevitably instigate a further tirade of communications, demands, threats etc. purely in the pursuit of profit.

 

Finally, I understand that when financial institutions (Principals) sell their “Book Debts” for an amount less that the face value, the remainder in loss can be “Charged Off” and the relevant tax deductions made as written off, however, in the process the credit status of debtors’ is adversely affected and Principals then canvass new business from more credit worthy customers. Furthermore, I understand that Secondary Assignee companies pursue the full balance plus and register further defaults with credit reference agencies, thus extending the 6 year period of a recorded default from the time the Document of Assignment is exchanged between assignor and assignee, but not necessarily from the date the Legal assignment has efficacy by delivery of a Notice of Assignment to the debtor. Moreover, should a Secondary Assignee fail to profit, I see no restriction on a further assignment taking place with the inevitable consequences of a further round of debt collection following. Therefore, I consider it extremely important for consumers affected by these events to present evidence in fact and in law to the relevant enforcement authorities in the public interest.

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Thank you for the above rosa

Now if i understand it correctly Its the NOTICE of assignment and the date it is received thats needed most,

We have a purported DEED of assignment normally ok , but the deed we have has no particulars written on it about the said debt

On the last page it goes

Executed as a Deed by a partner in Ozannes,as a duly authorised attorney for GE capital bank ltd signed

 

Executed as a Deed by a partner in Ozannes as a duly authorised attorney

for CL finance ltd signed

BOTH signatures are the same

If ive got it right this is no proof

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Some interesting issues here as I believe HSBC may have quoted wrong account numbers on many of these, I have 2 accounts that were closed with zero balances that Marlin are chasing……I do actually owe the money but not on the account numbers that show on the documentation

 

Also one of the accounts ,Tessera issued to Marlin and Largo, and both are chasing the money…….Now I realise what’s happened and I am having fun with the DCAs so no problems there ….but I am playing devils advocate with HSBC, because as a layman how am I supposed to know how the system works, after all I received 2 HSBC headed letters saying they had sold the debt so I am in their complaints process since January and they really don’t know how to deal with this

 

However one very interesting issue this throws up is the way debt is packaged and sold and the way that foreign money or private equity is being used to set up companies to buy this debt its called Zero rated Assets and is written off against tax by institutions this is sold to DCAs for about 10p in the pound , they then are only interested in getting this secured and into litigation as quickly as they can.

 

I have investigated Marlin and anyone who has seen my previous posts will have seen how 3 companies including Marlin Financial Services ,Mortimer Clarke Solicitors and Marlin Legal Services all work from a very tiny property that looks like a private house in the middle of the Sussex countryside, their European operations operate from a virtual office in London, the business partners include a Solicitor so that’s how they have managed to set up the pseudo Solicitors firm I know his name and have called and asked to speak to him , for some reason he’s never in the office.

 

Have a look at this link because it explains their business model.

 

http://www.marlinlegalservices.co.uk/our_services.html

 

The good news is these people seem to pull away from legal actions that involves a defence at the local court stage, because I think their legal process is basically a computer program that seems to add on interest to the debt at a phenomenal rate that if it got to CC stage would raise an eyebrow or two.

 

I am in the process of writing to my MP as I personally think its immoral for UK based top world banking group to offload my accounts to venture capitalists who are openly working a business model of turning unsecured debt into secured

Live Life-Debt Free

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Thank you for the above rosa

Now if i understand it correctly Its the NOTICE of assignment and the date it is received thats needed most,

We have a purported DEED of assignment normally ok , but the deed we have has no particulars written on it about the said debt

On the last page it goes

Executed as a Deed by a partner in Ozannes,as a duly authorised attorney for GE capital bank ltd signed

 

Executed as a Deed by a partner in Ozannes as a duly authorised attorney

for CL finance ltd signed

BOTH signatures are the same

If ive got it right this is no proof

 

I have received a copy of the same as you from the muppetts GE/CLFinance/HC Cohen - which I requested under the CPR - However it is the first time that I have every seen it as I haven't received a DOA before so do they make them up as they go along..?

 

It has a date wrote on the front, no account number no outstanding debt figures or anything that would link the debt o/s and the company , only my name & this double signature

 

Do I understand that it is not worth the paper that it's written on...

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I think so. mine was 4 pages

1st page date [ which is 2 days later than on claim form] between GE and CL

2nd Forms of Assigmment,heading.

3rd carries on from 2nd page

4th as printed above with 2 signaturs rhe same [who or what is OZANNES]

I think i will scan these up if i can

Is that the same as yours Ginnever

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I think so. mine was 4 pages

1st page date [ which is 2 days later than on claim form] between GE and CL

2nd Forms of Assigmment,heading.

3rd carries on from 2nd page

4th as printed above with 2 signaturs rhe same [who or what is OZANNES]

I think i will scan these up if i can

Is that the same as yours Ginnever

 

Yes, popeye1 - that is the same form, This is the first time that I have seen a deed of assignment, I have never received one before.

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