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    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.    Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.   The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved.  Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
    • You can use a family's address.   The only caveat is for the final hearing you'd need to be there in person   HOWEVER i'd expect them to pay if its only £200 because costs of attending will be higher than that
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Shop refusing to give change


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My daughter and her friends have gone into town, they have gone into a certain shop, purchased a handbag for £3. Paid with a ten pound note I had given her, and walked away from the till. Took half a dozen steps then realised she had been given no change.

 

She immediately went back to the till, and was told basically tough, you should of checked straight away! Give us your phone number and we will ring you tonight if the till is up.

 

My daughter has just rung me, and is so distressed.

 

Before I go to the shop guns blazin.....what should I do?

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Does she have a reciept?

 

Please Note

 

 

The advice I offer will be based on the information given by the person needing it. All my advice is based on my experiences and knowledge gained in working in the motor and passenger transport industries in various capacities. Although my advice will always be sincere, it should be used as guidence only.

 

 

I would always urge to seek professional advice for clarification prior to taking any action.

 

 

Please click my scales at the bottom of my profile window on the left if you found my advice usefull.

 

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My temper got the better of me, and I went to the shop.

 

I asked what had gone on, and she validated my daughter's story. Yes she had the receipt still which showed she had given £7 change.

 

I asked why the change hadn't been offered to my daughter, and the slales girl said she couldn't remember, and to wait until the store had closed so she could check.

 

I told her she should check now while I wait. There were 2 other tills in the shop and it was very quiet, as what would happen if she made another mistake and gave too much change out??

 

So she apparently went to call head office, came back and said she needed to count it out by hand. And low and behold within 5 mins she gave my daughter her change.

 

A tiny victory I know, but one that my daughter is proud of. :)

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Please don't forget this site is run on DONATIONS If this site has helped in any way, then please give a little back. ;-)

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Just as an aside, the shop (any shop) is NOT legally obliged to give a customer change!

 

Yes I know it sounds silly, but it would be perfectly legal for a shop to take the money you tender for goods and NOT give you any change at all.

 

Obviously that doesn't happen in the real world (except on buses that display EXACT CHANGE ONLY or parking machines that state NO CHANGE GIVEN), but it's true and perfectly legal.

 

I'm glad you got your money back though £7 is a lot to lose because of human error

 

Mossy

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Reference or citation please Mossycat.

 

Royal Mint says:

 

Both parties to a transaction are free to agree to accept any form of payment whether legal tender or otherwise according to their wishes. In order to comply with the very strict rules governing an actual legal tender transaction it is necessary, for example, to offer the exact amount due because no change can be demanded.

 

Frequently Asked Questions

 

Mossycat is 100% correct...Consider vending machines that state "use exact cahange" or "no change given".

 

However it would be commercial suicide for a shop to impliment a no change policy.

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However it would be commercial suicide for a shop to impliment a no change policy.

 

Yep, and that's exactly why they give change.

 

Just as another aside the reason why a lot of retail prices end in .99p is NOT because £9.99 sounds cheaper than £10.00 and therefore tempts you into buying it, it is because of change.

A customer who buys something at £10 and pays for it with a £10 note might not wait for a receipt, but if the goods are priced at £9.99 most customers would wait for their change, which forces the sales assistant to ring the sale through the till.

 

The .99p pricing was introduced to reduce staff theft because they couldn't pocket the money paid and had to ring it into the till to get the change the customer was waiting for.

 

Mossy

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you think £7's bad

 

once went into the bank and put £400 in, it hadnt gone in next day so i went and asked to be told "theres no record of the transaction".... they asked if i had the reciet from it, and i pointed out i hadnt been asked.

 

they closed the area of the kiosk down and checked the staff members till that had apparently not been cashed up overnight?????

 

found the £400 fortunatly cos i was ready to kill someone that was our holliday money

Please note:

 

  • I am employed in the IT sector of a high street retail chain but am not posting in any official capacity,so therefore any comments,suggestions or opinions are expressly personal ones and should not be viewed as an endorsement or with agreement of any company.
  • i am not legal trained in any form.
  • I have many experiences in life and do often use these in my posts

if ive been helpful kick my scales, if ive been unhelpful kick the scales of the person more helpful :eek:

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Its a simple contract issue.

 

The marked price is an invitation to a treat - so if you pay for an item costing £5 with a £10 note... you are the one offering to pay double the price.

 

If the seller does not want to give change then it is their choice... as the customer you either pay the correct price or don't buy the item at all!

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I know all that but would still like to see it in black and white or it becomes just another myth.

 

Tendering £10 for a £5 item is not offering to pay double the price unless you make that obvious.

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I think that is about as black and white as it gets!

 

The leading cases on Invitation to treat are; Fisher v Bell [1961] and Pharmaceutical Society of Great Britain v Boots Cash Chemists Ltd [1952].

 

None of these cases concern someone not recieving change, but they do state that where goods are advertised in a shop, there is no offer by the shop keeper.

 

Therefore it is the customer that makes the offer. So, if you did hand over £10 and the cashier said "i will not be giving you change", you would not be able to demand change.

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the answer is in fact there is no LAW that requires change to be given , therefore it cannot be shown in law

 

however a shop / retailers etc etc would be stupid if they ran on , exact price of goods only and did not give change, however there is no actual law to stop them,

 

the giving of change is a service that is offered free of charge, and it can be withdrawn at anytime

 

there are many self serve facilitys that do not supply change such as vending machines, and in most cases they will have a sign saying "NO CHANGE GIVEN" simply because people would be complaining left right and centre,

..

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