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    • An update to this case as I’ve not been on in a while.    I am still awaiting a charging decision in the case. The two police officers involved have said their personal belief is a section 47 ABH charge is the most likely outcome but this isn’t a sure thing of course.    The EA certificate from the issuing court has now lapsed. The court have refused to recertify him until they’ve had a hearing in to the case, and the district judge has issued orders to surrender all evidence, footage, photos etc.    I have done so promptly.    the EA, not so much . Equita have claimed they cannot provide his bodycam footage as the camera he was wearing is the EA personal one not one of theirs.   the EA has claimed he has asked Equita and the police for the footage as he claims he doesn’t have it.    the police have confirmed they didn’t seize his camera and they don’t have it.    so they are basically pointing the finger at each other all the while failing to comply with the district judges order to provide all evidence they intend to rely on at the rescheduled hearing.    The district judge has stated the hearing for his certification will NOT be the hearing for my complaint as there is no charge as of yet, and just as to whether he should be recertified or not.    I’m not 100% on why that can’t be done at the time, but I’m not about to question a judge…..      
    • Thanks FTMDave, I like the cut of your jib - I'll go with that and obtain proof of postage. Encouraging that NPE have never followed through and seem to blowing hot air, let's see where they go after this   Regards
    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
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SJP37/Halifax BOS


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Hi All,

 

Quick bit of background,

 

sent off CCA letters to Halifax (2 Halifax Cards and 1 RBS Card) and surprise surprise got blank t&c's.

 

Was subsequently recommended a Debt Management Company by a 'friend of a friend' to take over the handling.

 

I signed up with them and they sent me pretty much the same letters that I got off this forum for me to send to Halifax.

 

I explained that I had already done this but they said I had to use their versions. So I did, and once again Halifax only supplied blank t&c's.

 

Now that I have requested this information twice,

is my next course of action a Subject Access Request?

 

Also can someone explain at what point do I stop my payments if the accounts seem to be 'in dispute'?

 

Look forward to your advices.

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Hi Clemma, no I haven't sent a "dispute" letter. If I send this, do I still need to send an SAR letter or does this "dispute" letter take care of it? And I take it there's a template on here?

 

Anyway, as I've just paid this months instalments I will stop paying from next month!

 

Many thanks,

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I would just send them the following - no point wasting £10 just yet.

 

Dear Sirs,

 

Account Number: XXX

 

Re: your recent reply to my request under section 77-79 of the Consumer Credit Act 1974

 

I note that you have replied to the above by sending your companies Terms and conditions I must inform you that this is not sufficient to comply with the request and that your company is still in default under the act.

 

To clarify, just sending the Terms and Conditions is a breach of the Act and Regulations as, apart from the information that the Regulations provide that you may exclude, the copy must be a “true copy” of the agreement.

 

This breach of the agreement can be demonstrated as follows;

As you will know section 180(1) (b) authorises, “the omission from a copy of certain material from the original, or the inclusion of certain material in condensed form.” This refers to statutory instruments made under the heading Copies of document regulations and in this care in particular to SI 1983/1557.

 

Before leaving section 180 there are two other sections that should be remembered these are:

 

Section 2(2) (a) A duty imposed by any provision of this Act (except section 35) to supply a copy of any document is not satisfied unless the copy supplied is in the prescribed form and conforms to the prescribed requirements;

 

And more importantly

 

Section 2(b) A duty imposed by any provision of this Act (except section 35) to supply a copy of any document is not infringed by the omission of any material, or its inclusion in condensed form, if that is authorised by regulations.

 

You will see that this quite clearly states that whilst certain items may be left out of the copy document the rest of the document must be in the form and contain all items as prescribed by the regulations.

 

Turning to the regulations regarding what may be omitted from these copies these are contained with SI 1983/1557.

 

The regulations state:

(2) There may be omitted from any such copy-

(a) any information included in an executed agreement, security instrument or other document relating to the debtor, hirer or surety or included for the use of the creditor or owner only which is not required to be included therein by the Act or any Regulations thereunder as to the form and content of the document of which it is a copy;

(b) any signature box, signature or date of signature (other than, in the case of a copy of a cancelable executed agreement delivered to the debtor under section 63(1) of the Act, the date of signature by the debtor of an agreement to which section 68(b) of the Act applies);

 

It is quite clear what can be omitted from the copy document, this again asserts that all other details of the agreement should presented in form and content as required by the regulations.

 

The requirements of the Agreement regulations 1983/1553 are very explicit in describing the form and content of an agreement and this as I have demonstrated also applies to the copy of any such agreement with the above mentioned proviso.

 

Nowhere within these regulations does it state that part of the agreement can be presented on a separate document headed terms and conditions.

It does state that all terms and conditions should be within the agreement document and is explicit of the form in which it is presented.

 

I hope this explains why your reply was unacceptable I await a True copy of my agreement and would remind you again that whilst the request has not been complied with the default continues

 

Yours faithfully

__________________

 

Definitely stop paying - it's your right to withhold payments until they comply.

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  • 4 weeks later...

Hi All,

 

I have 2 credit card accounts with Halifax and 1 with BoS of which I have CCA'd them with the usual response of blank t&c's. I then sent dispute letters and received the following:-

 

Halifax

 

Sent the attached letter which included the sentence "For the avoidance of doubt, the Consumer Credit Act 1974 does not prohibit collection activity when an account is in dispute." Is this true?

Halifax response to dispute letter.pdf

 

Bank of Scotland

Sent me a copy of an application form which bears my signature. How do I stand on this, as I don't remember signing it and I haven't dated it although they have a dated 'Received" stamp?

Bank of Scotland Application Form.pdf

 

Look forward to hearing from someone more experienced on what to do next.

 

Thanks,

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The bank of Scotland application form, is missing the prescribed terms for a credit card, i.e. Credit Limit, Interest rate, repayment dates. therefore it would be unenforceable in Court by virtue of s127(3) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974, providing the agreement was taken out before April 2007 - the agreement looks old.

 

Can you post the copy agreement that Halifax sent you ? (Remove your ID first ..u know name, address, account no etc.).

 

If they have not sent you a copy of your original agreement then there is a letter here you can adapt. You need to see the original document copy with your signature on it. Here's the letter :-

Template_CPR_Pre_Action_request.doc

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If you a writing directly to the original creditor, then delete "I do not recognize your authority" .

 

Did you take out any PPI with the Halifax agreement ? If so it may have been mis-sold.

 

Do you have a copy of the Default Notice ?

 

Do you have copies of all the Bank statements ? The account is likely to contain unfair charges of £15 and above.

 

To obtain copies of the Default Notice and Copy statements you would need to send the creditor a Subject Access Request (SAR), made under the Data Protection Act 1998. This requires a £10 fee.

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To answer your question on collection whilst an account is in dispute.

 

If it's only the right to enforce that's in dispute (e.g. an agreement does not contain prescribed terms), then I believe a creditor can still 'ask' you to pay, simply they would not be able to enforce payment in Court. If they harass you,(incessant phone calls etc.) then you can stop them doing this. (Template letters are around) and request all communication to be in writing only.

 

If an amount is in dispute, e.g. unfair charges under the UTCCR 1999, or mis-sold PPI etc. or a payment is disputed, then under OFT Debt Collection guidelines (OFT 664), they should cease all collection activity until the dispute has been resolved.

Edited by shakespeare62

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The bank of Scotland application form, is missing the prescribed terms for a credit card, i.e. Credit Limit, Interest rate, repayment dates. therefore it would be unenforceable in Court by virtue of s127(3) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974, providing the agreement was taken out before April 2007 - the agreement looks old.

 

Can you post the copy agreement that Halifax sent you ? (Remove your ID first ..u know name, address, account no etc.).

 

If they have not sent you a copy of your original agreement then there is a letter here you can adapt. You need to see the original document copy with your signature on it. Here's the letter :-

 

Shakespear62, many thanks for your posts, I will respond to each of them in turn if that's ok.

 

Have attached the T&C's I receieved for both the Halifax and BoS accounts.

 

Halifax T&C's.pdf

 

Bank of Scotland T&C's.pdf

 

Regarding the letter template, I guess I fire this off pronto?

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If you a writing directly to the original creditor, then delete "I do not recognize your authority" .

 

Did you take out any PPI with the Halifax agreement ? If so it may have been mis-sold.

 

Do you have a copy of the Default Notice ?

 

Do you have copies of all the Bank statements ? The account is likely to contain unfair charges of £15 and above.

 

To obtain copies of the Default Notice and Copy statements you would need to send the creditor a Subject Access Request (SAR), made under the Data Protection Act 1998. This requires a £10 fee.

 

 

Yes I am writing to the original creditors, not been passed on to any DCA's...yet!

 

No PPI taken out so can't go down that road.

 

No Default Notice yet, just some 'gentle' reminders on my last statements!

 

At this stage do you think I need to proceed with a SAR?

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To answer your question on collection whilst an account is in dispute.

 

If it's only the right to enforce that's in dispute (e.g. an agreement does not contain prescribed terms), then I believe a creditor can still 'ask' you to pay, simply they would not be able to enforce payment in Court. If they harass you,(incessant phone calls etc.) then you can stop them doing this. (Template letters are around) and request all communication to be in writing only.

 

If an amount is in dispute, e.g. unfair charges under the UTCCR 1999, or mis-sold PPI etc. or a payment is disputed, then under OFT Debt Collection guidelines (OFT 664), they should cease all collection activity until the dispute has been resolved.

 

Well I'm not disputing the amount, it's the enforcability, but I'm sure I've seen on here somewhere that if I'm disputing its credability then making payments contradicts the argument.

 

As for harassing phonecalls, have started getting the hourly automated one's from Halifax. I will try and find a letter on here to send them.

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Regarding the letter template, I guess I fire this off pronto?

 

I'd send the SAR, requesting a copy of the signed (i.e. executed agreement instead). This is because your Halifax agreement is still active. You need to see a copy of the original executed agreement.

 

I've attached a sample letter for BOS here :-

 

Send both letters by recorded delivery if poss. Failing that, obtain a Certificate of posting (free receipt from the Post Office when you hand in a letter)

UNENFORCEABLE_AGREEMENT_LETTER.doc

Edited by shakespeare62

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Well I'm not disputing the amount, it's the enforcability, but I'm sure I've seen on here somewhere that if I'm disputing its credability then making payments contradicts the argument.

Correct - see the last para of the suggested letter to Bank of Scotland

 

As for harassing phonecalls, have started getting the hourly automated one's from Halifax. I will try and find a letter on here to send them.

 

Here's an example harrassment notice :-

Harrassment Notice Example - phone calls.doc

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At this stage do you think I need to proceed with a SAR?

 

Depends, I would be inclined to seek for as much information as possible, including a copy of the agreement and all charges made on the account. However, your as I understand it your credit card agreement has not been Defaulted or Terminated yet.

 

Usually people fall behind in payments on an agreement because they get into financial difficulties and cannot maintain them. At that point the creditor will usually Default and Terminate the agreement, before commencing Debt Collection action.

 

Until you are sure about whether the Halifax agreement is enforceable or not, if you can maintain payments it might be a good idea.

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I'd send the SAR, requesting a copy of the signed (i.e. executed agreement instead). This is because your Halifax agreement is still active. You need to see a copy of the original executed agreement.

 

I've attached a sample letter for BOS here :-

 

Send both letters by recorded delivery if poss. Failing that, obtain a Certificate of posting (free receipt from the Post Office when you hand in a letter)

 

Will do right away, and will keep you and everyone posted of the outcome.

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Here's a link to a good example SAR

 

http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/legal-issues/152932-alphageek-sainsburys-cc.html#post1908783

 

In summary, I'd hold fire on the CPR pre-action request letter to Halifax, because they haven't threatened you with legal action yet, send the SAR to them instead.

 

To BoS, I'd send the letter informing them the agreement is unenforceable and you are not obliged to pay them anything.

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You could send the CPR pre-action request letter, later on, if you get defaulted and threatened with legal action.....

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Depends, I would be inclined to seek for as much information as possible, including a copy of the agreement and all charges made on the account. However, your as I understand it your credit card agreement has not been Defaulted or Terminated yet.

 

Usually people fall behind in payments on an agreement because they get into financial difficulties and cannot maintain them. At that point the creditor will usually Default and Terminate the agreement, before commencing Debt Collection action.

 

Until you are sure about whether the Halifax agreement is enforceable or not, if you can maintain payments it might be a good idea.

 

Well, I'm getting to the point where I don't think I can maintain the payments, and if there is a question mark over the CCA, then is this not the road that I should go down, just to keep the wolves from the door?

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You will need to send the SAR by Special Delivery (in case they deny receipt) , and enclose a postal order for £10 made payable to HBOS.

 

Useful CAG templates can be found here :-

http://www.consumerforums.com/resources/templates-library/48-bank-templates.html

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Here's a link to a good example SAR

 

http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/legal-issues/152932-alphageek-sainsburys-cc.html#post1908783

 

In summary, I'd hold fire on the CPR pre-action request letter to Halifax, because they haven't threatened you with legal action yet, send the SAR to them instead.

 

To HBOS, I'd send the letter informing them the agreement is unenforceable and you are not obliged to pay them anything.

 

Re Halifax, I agree, that seems to make sense to me as well now you say it.

 

The same goes for HBOS, will send that one out.

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