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    • Hi Sorry for the delay in getting back to you The email excuse and I do say excuse to add to your account and if court decide LL can't recoup costs will be removed is a joke. So I would Ask them: Ask them to provide you with the exact terms within your Tenancy Agreement that allows them to add these Court Fees to your Account before it has been decided in Court by a Judge. Until the above is answered you require these Court Fees to be removed from your Account (Note: I will all be down to your Tenancy Agreement so have a good look through it to see what if any fees they can add to your account in these circumstances)
    • Thank you for your responses. As requested, some more detail. Please forgive, I'm writing this on my phone which always makes for less than perfect grammar. My Dad tries but English not his 1st language, i'm born and bred in England, a qualified accountant and i often help him with his admin. On this occasion I helped my dad put in his renewal driving licence application around 6 weeks before expiry and with it the disclosure of his sleep apnoea. Once the licence expired I told him to get in touch with his GP, because the DVLA were offering only radio silence at that time (excuses of backlogs When I called to chase up). The GP charged £30 for an opinion letter on his ability to drive based on his medical history- at the time I didn't take a copy of the letter, but I am hoping this will be key evidence that we can rely on as to why s88 applies because in the GP opinion they saw no reason he couldn't drive i need to see the letter again as im going only on memory- we forwarded the letter in a chase up / complaint to the DVLA.  In December, everything went quiet RE the sleep apnoea (i presume his GP had given assurance) but the DVLA noticed there had been a 2nd medical issue in the past, when my father suffered a one off mini stroke 3 years prior. That condition had long been resolved via an operation (on his brain of all places, it was a scary time, but he came through unscathed) and he's never had an issue since. We were able to respond to that query very promptly (within the 14 days) and the next communication was the licence being granted 2 months later. DVLA have been very slow in responding every step of the way.  I realise by not disclosing the mini stroke at the time, and again on renewal (had I known I'd have encouraged it) he was potentially committing an offence, however that is not relevant to the current charge being levied, which is that he was unable to rely on s88 because of a current medical issue (not one that had been resolved). I could be wrong, I'm not a legal expert! The letter is a summons I believe because its a speeding offence (59 in a temp roadworks 50 limit on the A1, ironically whist driving up to visit me). We pleaded guilty to the speeding but not guilty to the s87.  DVLA always confirmed to me on the phone that the licence had not been revoked and that he "May" be able to continue to drive. They also confirmed in writing, but the letter explains the DVLA offer no opinion on the matter and that its up to the driver to seek legal advice. I'll take the advice to contact DVLA medical group. I'm going to contact the GP to make sure they received the SAR request for data, and make it clear we need to see a copy of the opinion letter. In terms of whether to continue to fight this, or to continue with the defence, do we have any idea of the potential consequences of either option? Thanks all
    • stopping payments until a DN arrives does not equal automatic sale to a DCA...if you resume payments after the DN.  
    • Sleep apnoea: used to require the condition  to be “completely” controlled Sometime before June 2013 DVLA changed it to "adequately" controlled. I have to disagree with MitM regarding the effect of informing DVLA and S.88 A diagnosis of sleep apnoea doesn't mean a licence wont be granted, and, indeed, here it was. If the father sought medical advice (did he?) : this is precisely where S.88 applies https://assets.publishing.service.gov.uk/media/64edcf3a13ae1500116e2f5d/inf1886-can-i-drive-while-my-application-is-with-dvla.pdf p.4 for “new medical condition” It is shakier ground if the opinion of a healthcare professional wasn’t sought. in that case it is on the driver to state they believed they met the medical standard to drive. However, the fact the licence was then later granted can be used to be persuasive that the driver’s belief they met the standard was correct. What was the other condition? And, just to confirm, at no point did DVLA say the licence was revoked / application refused? I’d be asking DVLA Drivers’ Medical Group why they believe S.88 doesn’t apply. S.88 only applies for the UK, incidentally. If your licence has expired and you meet the conditions for S.88 you can drive in the U.K., but not outside the U.K. 
    • So you think not pay until DN then pay something to the oc to delay selling to dcas?    then go from there? 
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Question on CCA 1974 s127(4)(b)


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Hi Caggers,

 

It is my belief that an a cancellable agreement not signed by the creditor shall not be enforced by a court, on the following basis.

 

CCA 1974 s127(4)(b) states:

 

(4) The court shall not make an enforcement order under section 65(1) in the case of a cancellable agreement if:

 

(b) section 64(1) was not complied with.

 

 

s64(1) states:

In the case of a cancellable agreement, a notice in the prescribed form indicating the right of the debtor or hirer to cancel the agreement, how and when that right is exercisable, and the name and address of a person to whom notice of cancellation may be given:

(a) must be included in every copy given to the debtor or hirer under section 62 or

63, and

(b) except where section 63(2) applied, must also be sent by post to the debtor or

hirer within the seven days following the making of the agreement.

(I don't believe section 63(2) applies to any agreement that hasn't been signed by the lender)

 

 

On this basis, it appears to me that a cancellable agreement cannot be enforced by a court if it was not signed by the lender.

 

Furthermore, an improperly executed agreement, such as one not signed by the lender is only enforceable by a court order.

 

This leads me to belive a cancellable agreement that has not been signed by the lender is not enforeceable at all.

 

I may be wrong, what do you think?

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I am bumping this thread because I think agreements not signed by creditor is very common and if my interpretation of the CCA 1974 is correct then (in the case of cancellable agreements - i.e. not signed at the branch) these agreements are completely unenforecable.

 

What do you think experts?

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  • 3 weeks later...

There has been debate around the forum on this subject – there are so many posts that things do get lost.

The argument does have some merit and I’ve thought the same myself but you would have to convince a judge that your agreement was a cancellable agreement as intended under s67 of the consumer credit act 1974.

I think the Rankines tried this one in their case and the judge found that their credit card agreements weren’t cancellable agreements, as far as the act was concerned, even though they included a right to cancel statement on them.

A regulated agreement may be cancelled by the debtor or hirer in accordance with this Part if the antecedent negotiations included oral representations made when in the presence of the debtor or hirer by an individual acting as, or on behalf of, the negotiator, unless…

Have a read of the case and the comments of the judge – I’m not saying I agree with him – just that you need to counter the argument.

http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/general-debt-issues/84285-ccas-dave-against-world-38.html#post1554322

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In my case, prior to signing the application, I telephoned the financial institution to discuss the merits of taking the card and they said I should take it, be mad not to. Does that help matters?

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I don’t think so – it has to be face to face.

The main reason for this part of the act was to give people a cooling off period – so if they signed an agreement in their homes after high pressure tactics from a door to door salesman (for example) they would have an automatic right of cancellation.

If you were given an application form in a bank and took it away and signed it at home (for example) and then took it back to the bank or posted it – then you would have an argument for s127(4) if appropriate.

That’s how I see it.

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  • 2 weeks later...

So the first question is, when is an agreement a cancellable agreement? What makes and agreement 'cancellable' according to the law.

 

The way I see it, if an agreement is not cancellable, would the creditor allow you to cancel it? Probably not. Would the creditor allow you to cancel the agreements we are talking about - the ones which come with a box 'your right to cancel' yes they would.

 

Would the creditor have a leg to stand on if they didn't allow you to cancel in the cancellation period and the case went to court? No..

 

What right does the judge have to say the agreement is not a cancellable agreement when it was.. personally I don't think he liked Mr Rankine.

 

What you lot think?

Edited by seabro
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  • 3 weeks later...

I'll bump this one too, as I have an agreement that's not been signed by the creditor, even though there is printed and space for it to go in.

These are video links to show how I deal with Debt Collectors.

 

Fly fishing for C.A.R.S

http://uk.youtube.com/watch?v=zPtzK8FqE6k&feature=related

 

Frederickson International don't accept my card type

http://uk.youtube.com/watch?v=eiZBULlWW6Q&feature=related

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Yes im interested in this too, as a relative has an agreement not signed by the creditor, but there was no space for a creditor signature only a debtor.

 

The agreement has a "your right to cancel" bit on it, with it advising exact details of how and when will be sent out. However further down the form it then advises when the right to cancel starts, how long you have, and the address to send written cancellation notice to.

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