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    • god they've got at you haven't they. told you all the usual utter BS. a CCJ vanishes from your credit file on it's 6th B'Day regardless to being paid off or not or paying or not. same with any debt with a registered defaulted date - it vanishes from your file on the DN's 6th B'day regardless. creditfix are Knightsbridge, (they renamed) there are 100's of threads here on Knightsbridge, if i remember rightly 2 of the directors of a certain very big IVA provider were struck off for embezzling £1m's out of debtors. pers i'd stop paying now.  end of . just ignore them all. 99% of your debts are to utterly powerless DCA's and probably were never owed in the first place only goes to firm up my belief from post one..you got had blind. its very easy to deal with the debts even those with CCJ's. can you copy and paste what you credit file says regarding the IVA please?   
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    • Sorry I meant credit fix - I really wish I'd known this before - kicking myself right now  If they come back to me asking for more money I'll cancel it and start trying to deal with the debt myself let's see what they say  Feeling tempted to cancel it now but scared that some of the debts will do more CCJ's on me and I'll have to wait 6 years again.  2 of the CCJ come of this year and then I'll only have the iva in credit file - effectively if I'd have not took out the iva in 2021 I'd have clear score by now - but then again would I because I would have been hounded the last 3 years, as bad as it is it's saves me lots of headaches whilst my debt was still within the 6 year mark.  I think most of them are near there but in all honesty no point chasing them if I do cancel iva I'd jjst wait for the ones who contact me and then start the relevant letter process on them.  Of over 6 years easy if not still possible to write off. My true victory would be having the iva wiped off my credit file as mis sold or something that way I Don't have to wait till 2027 Other option is to fight back and ask for them to offer the creditors to accept payments so far and use the following method    Will your IVA firm agree to complete your IVA on the basic of funds paid to date? The Guidance lists a lot of factors to be considered in deciding whether a settlement on the basis of funds paid to date should be proposed. You should read the list. But that may not give you any feel for whether they apply to you or not. The following are my thoughts on when an IVA should be treated as settled, not failed. They assume that you have £75 or less to pay a month: if you would currently qualify for a Debt Relief Order, then your IVA should be settled now  There is no point in making your IVA fail and you have to apply for a DRO – it will not generate another penny for your creditors. If you are renting and owe less than £50,000, check the DRO criteria now and talk to National Debtline on 0808 808 4000 about whether you qualify. You may have been told at the start of your IVA that you aren’t eligible – still check now as the DRO criteria have changed, your situation has got worse, and some people were given incorrect information about DROs at the start. if you have no assets that would be realised in bankruptcy (eg a house with equity, car worth over £2000), then your IVA should be settled now Same as (1), there is no point in making you apply for bankruptcy after your IVA fails. if your only asset is a car that is worth less than £8000, then your IVA should be settled now A car that is worth say £5000 would normally be sold in bankruptcy and you would be given a small amount to buy a cheaper car. But your creditors would not get any benefit from this as the Insolvency Service takes the first £8000 raised to cover its own costs. if you have significant assets, the closer you are to the end of the IVA, the less reasonable it is to fail it If you have been paying your IVA for 4 years, you have done your best over a long period. It isn’t your fault you can no longer continue. The fact you may have had equity to release isn’t relevant as that simply isn’t going to be possible. if your situation will clearly improve soon, then it’s unlikely your IVA will be settled I mean real improvements, not hoping that prices fall. If I can get them to accept payment to date or threaten with cancellation hopefully they may accept it -  Other option is to try and borrow money and pay make a full and final offer  Or I can just ignore and hope for the best which I'm very tempted to do especially if they respond to my review with bullying tactics despite me being skint as a fart with no mortgage as renting  It's so stressful but I've just checked the iva agreement from 2021 and it's Cabot 2 accounts Lowell about 5 accounts and then lots of repeats of the same debt with for example zopa and Cabot same amount listed twice -  also loyyds banks but I'm sure that's older than 6 years and not on credit file anyway  If I can somehow remove the iva from my credit file I'd be happy 
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What is the point of Home insurance? Please need your simple opinion.


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Dear All

I would greatly appreciate your opinion in my insurance dispute.

We notified our insurer of believed subsidence post exchange of contract.

The purchaser did not complete the sale of our home but we completed on the sale of the new home we were moving to.

 

Our insurer investigated & repudiated our claim stating “During my own visit I could not detect any recent subsidence damage even accompanied by yourself using a dumpy level”

Long storey short after 5 years & 10 months from commencement of the subsidence our insurer has accepted 196mm of subsidence across the entirety of our home & that at minimum half the property requires demolition.

Our property is classified as dangerous & Category 5 worse case of structural damage.

Once our insurer accepted subsidence liability we asked for the another claim.

 

The relevant clause within our Insurance policy states:

“Where you are selling your home we will pay for loss or damage arising from any cause listed in this section during the period between exchange of contracts and completion date to any purchaser of your home. Our liability for your home will end when your insurable interest in the home ends, which is normally when you vacate the home following completion and you hand over the keys to the buyer.”

 

The Financial Ombudsman Service (FOS) believe that the average person test should be engaged to this coverage.

The Financial Ombudsman believes this means:

“We must also consider the reasonable person test i.e. how would an average person read and understand the statement. In this instance I believe an average person would assume the following; the losses or damage referred to are limited to those caused to the building by an insured peril. Also, I believe the average person would understand the statement, “the period between exchange of contracts and completion date to any purchaser of your home”, to mean the normal length of time this process takes and if a purchaser pulls out of the sale the period then stops and the policy reverts to standard cover, not a totally unlimited time until a new buyer is found.”

 

The opinion I wish to ask is what the open public insurance purchasers believe/understand as to this policy clause!

“Where you are selling your home we will pay for loss or damage arising from any cause listed in this section during the period between exchange of contracts and completion date to any purchaser of your home.

 

DO YOU UNDERSTAND THIS AS THE ORIGIONAL PROPOSED PURCHASER OR ANY PURCHASER.

Our belief is that as long as we the seller has retained an insurable interest in our home we are covered for any loss as there are no exclusions until a new purchaser is found. We have even offered the property to our insurer who does’t want it.

We believe this is important in a buildings insurance policy if this was not the case and there is an occurrence of physical damage between the times of exchange and completion which induced a buyer not to complete or to delay completion and payment, the Sellers would suffer loss that might prove irrecoverable.

 

SECONDLY, when does the insurance companies liability end?

"Our liability for your home will end when your insurable interest in the home ends, which is normally when you vacate the home following completion and you hand over the keys to the buyer.”

IS IT AS IT SAYS ON THE BOX OR as the Ombudsman puts it “the normal length of time this process takes and if a purchaser pulls out of the sale the period then stops”.

 

Thank you in advance for your time & comments.

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My understanding is that this cover between exchange and completion for loss and damage caused by the insured perils, is to protect the buyer for this period. Which is why it says that their (Insurers) liability ends when you have no interest in the property usually completion. Because when the buyers have all the liability on completion their Buildings Insurance will take on the full risk.

 

If the completion never takes place then this specific insurance clause will stop at the point the contract is stopped, which will be the date on relevant documents confirming the sale is not proceeding.

 

There is also the issue of double insurance, as usually the buyer is required to arrange Building Insurance from exchange of contracts. See this article

http://www.shlegal.com/knowledge/publications/06_10_The_perils_of_double_insurance_in_a_property_transaction

 

What are you actually trying to claim for under this specific insurance clause ?

We could do with some help from you.

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Dear Sir

 

I would highlight the same case:

http://www.bailii.org/ew/cases/EWHC/Comm/2010/773.html

 

Double insurance is not an issue, as the sale contract covered that the owner would keep the property insured. Insurance company was aware of this.

Due to the insurance companies repudiation of a valid claim & upholding the repudiation while internally admitting liability (I have this in writing from them), means the insured has had to pay 2 mortgages for the duration.

The insured has had to pay experts to have the invalid repudiation overturned. This is a loss.

 

During the 5 year & 10 month fight to get the insurance company to admit liability the property market has taken a bit of a down turn! Hence the property is worth a fraction of its original value. This is a loss.

Plus all the interest.

 

It would seem that insurance is totally pointless.

The hold harmless principle seems to not exist!

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Think this will end up in court, as the FOS can be useless in such cases. It would not surprise me if the FOS agreed with Insurers that this cover was purely about damage to the property and not the type of losses that you are seeking. The claim you are wanting to make is a legal one and not one that Insurers would consider under the normal terms of the insurance.

 

Would have thought that a court claim would be quite straightfoward. i.e Insurers dragged out an Insurance claim for over 5 years that was relatively straightforward and as a direct result I suffered these losses.

 

Be careful about statute of limitations, as to the date by which you must start any court proceedings, being that the cause of the dispute started 5yrs 10mths ago. Get urgent advice and if you need to get a court claim started.

We could do with some help from you.

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That is the problem.

Is the FOS really independent?

they dragged this out for so long it is over 6 years now.

 

Does a FOS ruling rest the clock?

 

No I don't think the FOS process rests the clock, but if you are going down the court route you need to do this asap. There could well be arguments as to the date that the statute barred principle applies from, that means that it is still within the 6 year period. This is where you need a Solicitor.

We could do with some help from you.

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It's not clear from your post but I assume you completed on the property you were buying and retained the old property as the sale fell through.

 

How long ago was this?

 

Did you transfer the Insurance to the new property and if so what did you do to cover the old property?

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"The purchaser did not complete the sale of our home but we completed on the sale of the new home we were moving to."

 

Yes we had to keep the old subsiding property. We still have it.

 

 

Hence why we ask for the opinion on CL 21.

 

“Where you are selling your home we will pay for loss or damage arising from any cause listed in this section during the period between exchange of contracts and completion date to any purchaser of your home. Our liability for your home will end when your insurable interest in the home ends, which is normally when you vacate the home following completion and you hand over the keys to the buyer.”

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In terms of statute of limitations I think because the Insurers appear to have admitted liability within 6 years from the date of the cause of any action, that you are ok in still taking this to court.

 

If I were in your shoes, armed with all the information, I would employ a Solicitor to start a court claim against the Insurers. But obviously you must talk to a Solicitor about how any fees would be handled. I can't see a no win no fee being possible, but perhaps some form of fixed fee arrangement would be best.

 

Obviously once you issue a court claim, the FOS will withdraw from dealing with your complaint, but I am guessing that you have no faith in continuing with the FOS anyway.

We could do with some help from you.

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