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    • S13 (2)The creditor may not exercise the right under paragraph 4 to recover from the keeper any unpaid parking charges specified in the notice to keeper if, within the period of 28 days beginning with the day after that on which that notice was given, the creditor is given— (a)a statement signed by or on behalf of the vehicle-hire firm to the effect that at the material time the vehicle was hired to a named person under a hire agreement; (b)a copy of the hire agreement; and (c)a copy of a statement of liability signed by the hirer under that hire agreement. As  Arval has complied with the above they cannot be pursued by EC----- ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- S14 [1]   the creditor may recover those charges (so far as they remain unpaid) from the hirer. (2)The conditions are that— (a)the creditor has within the relevant period given the hirer a notice in accordance with sub-paragraph (5) (a “notice to hirer”), together with a copy of the documents mentioned in paragraph 13(2) and the notice to keeper; (b)a period of 21 days beginning with the day on which the notice to hirer was given has elapsed;  As ECP did not send copies of the documents to your company and they have given 28 days instead of 21 days they have failed to comply with  the Act so you and your Company are absolved from paying. That is not to say that they won't continue asking to be paid as they do not have the faintest idea how PoFA works. 
    • Euro have got a lot wrong and have failed to comply with the Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 Schedule 4.  According to Section 13 after ECP have written to Arval they should then send a NTH to the Hirer  which they have done.This eliminates Arval from any further pursuit by ECP. When they wrote to your company they should have sent copies of everything that they asked Arval for. This is to prove that your company agree what happened on the day of the breach. If ECP then comply with the Act they are allowed to pursue the hirer. If they fail, to comply they cannot make the hirer pay. They can pursue until they are blue in the face but the Hirer is not lawfully required to pay them and if it went to Court ECP would lose. Your company could say who was driving but the only person that can be pursued is the Hirer, there does not appear to be an extension for a driver to be pursued. Even if there was, because ECP have failed miserably to comply with the Act  they still have no chance of winning in Court. Here are the relevant Hire sections from the Act below.
    • Thank-you FTMDave for your feedback. May I take this opportunity to say that after reading numerous threads to which you are a contributor, I have great admiration for you. You really do go above and beyond in your efforts to help other people. The time you put in to help, in particular with witness statements is incredible. I am also impressed by the way in which you will defer to others with more experience should there be a particular point that you are not 100% clear on and return with answers or advice that you have sought. I wish I had the ability to help others as you do. There is another forum expert that I must also thank for his time and patience answering my questions and allowing me to come to a “penny drops” moment on one particular issue. I believe he has helped me immensely to understand and to strengthen my own case. I shall not mention who it is here at the moment just in case he would rather I didn't but I greatly appreciate the time he took working through that issue with me. I spent 20+ years of working in an industry that rules and regulations had to be strictly adhered to, indeed, exams had to be taken in order that one had to become qualified in those rules and regulations in order to carry out the duties of the post. In a way, such things as PoFA 2012 are rules and regulations that are not completely alien to me. It has been very enjoyable for me to learn these regulations and the law surrounding them. I wish I had found this forum years ago. I admit that perhaps I had been too keen to express my opinions given that I am still in the learning process. After a suitable period in this industry I became Qualified to teach the rules and regulations and I always said to those I taught that there is no such thing as a stupid question. If opinions, theories and observations are put forward, discussion can take place and as long as the result is that the student is able to clearly see where they went wrong and got to that moment where the penny drops then that is a valuable learning experience. No matter how experienced one is, there is always something to learn and if I did not know the answer to a question, I would say, I don't know the answer to that question but I will go and find out what the answer is. In any posts I have made, I have stated, “unless I am wrong” or “as far as I can see” awaiting a response telling me what I got wrong, if it was wrong. If I am wrong I am only too happy to admit it and take it as a valuable learning experience. I take the point that perhaps I should not post on other peoples threads and I shall refrain from doing so going forward. 🤐 As alluded to, circumstances can change, FTMDave made the following point that it had been boasted that no Caggers, over two years, who had sent a PPC the wrong registration snotty letter, had even been taken to court, let alone lost a court hearing .... but now they have. I too used the word "seemed" because it is true, we haven't had all the details. After perusing this forum I believe certain advice changed here after the Beavis case, I could be wrong but that is what I seem to remember reading. Could it be that after winning the above case in question, a claimant could refer back to this case and claim that a defendant had not made use of the appeal process, therefore allowing the claimant to win? Again, in this instance only, I do not know what is to be gained by not making an appeal or concealing the identity of the driver, especially if it is later admitted that the defendant was the driver and was the one to input the incorrect VRN in error. So far no one has educated me as to the reason why. But, of course, when making an appeal, it should be worded carefully so that an error in the appeal process cannot be referred back to. I thought long and hard about whether or not to post here but I wanted to bring up this point for discussion. Yes, I admit I have limited knowledge, but does that mean I should have kept silent? After I posted that I moved away from this forum slightly to find other avenues to increase my knowledge. I bought a law book and am now following certain lawyers on Youtube in the hope of arming myself with enough ammunition to use in my own case. In one video titled “7 Reasons You Will LOSE Your Court Case (and how to avoid them)” by Black Belt Barrister I believe he makes my point by saying the following, and I quote: “If you ignore the complaint in the first instance and it does eventually end up in court then it's going to look bad that you didn't co-operate in the first place. The court is not going to look kindly on you simply ignoring the company and not, let's say, availing yourself of any kind of appeal opportunities, particularly if we are talking about parking charge notices and things like that.” This point makes me think that, it is not such a bizarre judgement in the end. Only in the case of having proof of payment and inputting an incorrect VRN .... could it be worthwhile making a carefully worded appeal in the first instance? .... If the appeal fails, depending on the reason, surely this could only help if it went to court? As always, any feedback gratefully received.
    • To which official body does one make a formal complaint about a LPA fixed charge receiver? Does one make a complaint first to the company employing the appointed individuals?    Or can one complain immediately to an official body, such as nara?    I've tried researching but there doesn't seem a very clear route on how to legally hold them to account for wrongful behaviour.  It seems frustratingly complicated because they are considered to be officers of the court and held in high esteem - and the borrower is deemed liable for their actions.  Yet what does the borrower do when disclosure shows clear evidence of wrong-doing? Does anyone have any pointers please?
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Hi

Its slightly off topic, but would appreciate you views anyway.

 

I've had no end of greif from the benefit system over the last few months, having just starting to get on top of this (hopefully), I'm now getting grief from my Estate Agents, ( I'm Private Renting, awaiting a council house ).

 

Not only have I been **** on by the DWP / Atos, now my estate agent has done a dirty.

 

My question is,

How widespread is the practise of estate agents sending out Section 21 Notices of eviction to everyone a couple of months prior to a Shorthold Tenancy coming to an end?. Regardless as to wether its to be renewed or not, I have just been caught out big time, and face eviction at the end of this month.

 

I'll start a thread in another section over the weekend.

just thought I'd slip it in here while I'm here, thanks

Alan

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Hi Alan, sorry to learn of your section 21. I had this happen to me on new years day 2009, however I turned this to my advantage and got fast-tracked into social housing even though I hadn't previously registered on the councils "home finder scheme". The council endlessly dragged their feet and gave me all sorts of misinformation to put me off, so I had to get shirty with them and threaten them with a County Court action to be followed by complaining to the Local Government Ombudsman. In the end I got 84 housing points and then a 1 bed flat just for me.

 

My advice is that you hand the council a letter applying as homeless under the Housing Act 1996 - Parts VI and VII, as amended by the Homelessness Act 2002 - I made them photo-copy a stamped and dated copy for me to keep as proof.

 

When I was going through this I found this document rather helpful:

Homelessness Code of Guidance for Local Authorities

"In order to achieve lower homelessness "targets" Councils are being unhelpful. Misinformation, incompetence and "gate keeping" are widespread. It helps if you know how the Councils are supposed to apply the law because they pay scant regard to their duty of homelessness."

 

Best regards,

Paul.

I'm not a qualified welfare rights adviser, but I'm planning on becoming one. I'm no substitute for more competent advice from trained CAB and welfare rights workers - [URL="http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/benefits-tax-credits-minimum/127741-benefits-advice.html"]see this post[/URL] by Joa, great advice and links! I've been running a Crisis Loan campaign and help since Jan 2007 . See my annotations c/o "theyworkforyou". I'm also currently interested by the recent DWP Medical Services reform and the effect this is having on valid claims, seriously - someone needs to be keeping a suicide count.

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Thanks paul.

I am already on the council housing list, have been bidding and finally got awarded a flat for me and my family, yesterday, trouble is it's not ready yet, posibly middle of August, had offered the estate agent another months rent, on a periodic tenancy basis to cover the gap between my original 6 month tenancy (ending 29th July)and moving into Flat in mid August, and allowing the obligatary 1 months notice I had to give.

The estate agent would not agree to this, insisting that I've got to be out by the 29th or they will get a court order.

I'm afraid I lost it then, and shouted at them to go ahead, i'll see them in court.

with hindsight this may have been a mistake, I was just so angry.

Alan

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I think (in fact I'm sure) the Estate Agent/Landlords have to give you 2 months notice, this has to begin at the start of your "rent period" (i.e. the day you normally pay your rent) otherwise it will be invalid.

Then the LL would have to apply to the county court - which takes another month, then it could be up to another six months if you oppose your LL, then the LL has to get a bailiff to enforce the repossession order.

I span my notice out to nearly 4 and 1/2 months - I think you'll be OK for mid-August. Cos my new LL is a HA and didn't require a deposit I was able to use the deposit from the previous LL for a new cooker and a few things.

 

Best of luck,

Paul.

 

Regards,

Paul.

I'm not a qualified welfare rights adviser, but I'm planning on becoming one. I'm no substitute for more competent advice from trained CAB and welfare rights workers - [URL="http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/benefits-tax-credits-minimum/127741-benefits-advice.html"]see this post[/URL] by Joa, great advice and links! I've been running a Crisis Loan campaign and help since Jan 2007 . See my annotations c/o "theyworkforyou". I'm also currently interested by the recent DWP Medical Services reform and the effect this is having on valid claims, seriously - someone needs to be keeping a suicide count.

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Potential 'assumptions' being made here that could be leading to incorrect answers.

 

As Loan_ranger has said, you need to be given two months notice via a S.21 (b ). This can be given to you at anytime within your fixed term tenancy and must be dated to end after the end of your fixed term tenancy (any point after the end of your tenancy), so what loan_ranger has said above is not correct (his advice relates to periodic tenancys and s.21 (a ) notices.

 

So is it a s.21 (b ) and does it give you a full two months notice from date of service (would have to be on or before 29th May) and does it require posession after the end of your tenancy i.e. 30th July for example? If not its invalid. Your deposit must have also be protected in a TDS scheme.

 

The agents will not be able to seek a court order until this 2 months has expired. A court order will likley take another 2-3 months with a further month or so for the baliffs to remove you. So even if the notice is correct, you would be long gone into your new property by then.

 

You are aware that at the end of a fixed term tenancy, ANY fixed term tenancy (AST) that it automatically becomes a periodic (rolling month on month) tenancy? Nothing can remove this right from you. So at midnight on the 29th July, your tenancy will become a periodic tenancy, requiring you to give one months notice to end it - so you can end it 29th August if you give a months notice before 29th July. Write your notice, make a photocopy for yourself, hand deliver it to the agents and get a recipt is you dont trust them.

 

Good Luck.

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Hi Planner, thanks for that.

The Section 21 Notice was dated 22nd May 2010,

and says:-

We -------,Agents for and on behalf of your Landlord(s) Mr and Mrs --------------, HEREBY GIVE YOU NOTICE that your Landlord or in the case of joint Landlords at least one of them requires possession of the said property on the 29 July 2010 AND THIS NOTICE is given under the provision of Section 21 of the Housing Act 1988.

 

I did query this at the time we received it, and was told its nothing at all to worry about its just normal practice, they do it to everyone.

 

Yes thanks, I have been made aware regarding it becoming a Periodic Tenancy, but when I pointed this out to the estate agent, they said "who told you that, we dont do periodic tenancy's as our landlords dont like them, and for Insurance purposes".

 

I'm just going to sit tight, let them do their worst, they've lost out, I was going to pay a months rent, but not now, I'll be moved by then.

 

Thanks again, Alan

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I've been reading other threads on this forum, and after reading the following, something else has occurred to me.

 

"However, if the rent is payable quarterly the tenant must be given not less than three months notice. If it is payable six monthly or annually the tenant must be given not less than 6 months notice".

 

 

Although the tenancy agreement states "£xxxx" monthly rent, I actually paid six months rent up front, a couple of days before moving in.

Does this make any differance as to how much notice they have to give me.

 

One more question, I also read on 'Planners' post, (thanks for that, by the way), that after a six month fixed term tenancy ends it automaticaly becomes a periodic tenancy, and its my right, so who do I report the estate agent to? as they claim I'm wrong.

 

Alan

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Further to my previous post.

I contacted my estate agent today, among other things I mentioned the section 21 notice they issued, and the way they issued it, they claimed it is a legal obligation to issue one, I dont dispute this, but I do dispute the timing of it, and what I consider to be an unfair way of issuing it, when I have done nothing to deserve it.

They are also claiming they do not have to supply me with my LL's address, despite my requesting it in writting, and whilst I am still a tenant.

 

any views welcome

Alan

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There's some confusion here. Let's look at the issues.

 

1. If the LL/agent wants to be sure that he CAN get a tenant out on the last day of the Agreement, then he MUST issue a S.21 Notice at least 2 months before. I always do it at the beginning of the tenancy, explaining that it does not meant that I WILL want them to go.

 

2. But if LL issues the S.21 Notice before he has protected the deposit and given proper notice to the tenant, then the Notice is invalid.

 

3. Your agent seems to have told you on one visit that you must go on 29th but on another that it is just a matter of form - which is puzzling.

 

4. I don't agree with Planner's interpretation of the right to go into a periodic tenancy (we have disagreed over this previously). If you have had a valid S.21 Notice and you don't move out, then you have no tenancy, not a periodic one.

 

5. Which brings us to the matter of how long it would take to get you out by the court method. The answer is as others have indicated and why the agent should argue over a couple of weeks I have no idea. For them to pay the court fees for a possession order which won't come to court until after you have moved out would be an act of stupidity.

 

6. So I suggest that you show them your correspondence from the council/HA so that they know you are not lying, and then pay TODAY 'cos it's gone 29th the one month's rent that is now due and then move out during the month at your convenience. If you don't pay for this month, they can then get a CCJ against you. Should they refuse to accept it, get them to sign a note saying so.

 

7. As your Agreement specifies monthly payments, that controls the notice period due even though you actually paid six months upfront.

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Thank you for that webranger.

 

"(3. Your agent seems to have told you on one visit that you must go on 29th but on another that it is just a matter of form - which is puzzling").

 

When I was issued the section 21 notice, (dated 22nd May and which I received 26th/27th May) I questioned it immediately, and the agent said "its normal practice, we do it to everyone, its nothing to worry about".

It was only nearing the end of the six months tenancy, when I wrote to them offering a further one months rent, and thereby being in a position to give them the required one months notice, that they said "No, we dont do periodic tenancies, you will need to leave on 29th July", then went on to say, "if your not out, we will go to court and get an eviction order".

 

Just an update.

I've now just been informed that the new flat wont be ready untill mid-end September, The housing ass. have said they will ring my estste agent,and explain what is happenning.

This is going to make it awkward.

 

Alan

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Forgive me having a chuckle at that news. If the HA speak to the agent, there should not be a problem. Even if they got to court before you moved in these circumstances the court would give you time to move to the HA property. So the agent will just have to grin and bear it.

 

But you MUST pay the rent for August and again for September. You had better, right now give the agent a notice to leave on 29th September.

 

I take it your deposit is protected?

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4. I don't agree with Planner's interpretation of the right to go into a periodic tenancy (we have disagreed over this previously). If you have had a valid S.21 Notice and you don't move out, then you have no tenancy, not a periodic one.

 

Can you clarify that please? Are you saying that, if a landlord serves a section 21 notice while the fixed term is in progress and the tenant remains in occupation when the fixed term ends, no statutory tenancy arises?

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You are aware that at the end of a fixed term tenancy, ANY fixed term tenancy (AST) that it automatically becomes a periodic (rolling month on month) tenancy? Nothing can remove this right from you. So at midnight on the 29th July, your tenancy will become a periodic tenancy, requiring you to give one months notice to end it - so you can end it 29th August if you give a months notice before 29th July. Write your notice, make a photocopy for yourself, hand deliver it to the agents and get a recipt is you dont trust them.

 

No notice to terminate a statutory periodic tenancy can be given before it starts. This is because its existence is contingent upon the tenant remaining in occupation. Until the tenant has remained in occupation there is no certainty that the tenancy will arise and until it arises it does not exist. You cannot give notice to end something that does not exist. Accordingly the earliest date on which notice could have been given (that is received by the landlord or agent) is 29th July and it would have to have been given to expire on 29th August as otherwise the period of notice would have been less than a month*. (A tenant's notice to quit can expire on either the first or last day of a tenancy period.)

 

*At least that is what I think; I cannot remember off hand if the day of notice is excluded.

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Can you clarify that please? Are you saying that, if a landlord serves a section 21 notice while the fixed term is in progress and the tenant remains in occupation when the fixed term ends, no statutory tenancy arises?

 

Of course I am. The law doesn't provide for a tenant who ignores a lawful notice to quit, to automatically acquire a new legal tenancy. That would provide lawful benefit for an unlawful act. Even our housing law is not that much of an ass.

 

In another thread http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/residential-commercial-lettings/270618-can-i-finish-my.html there's a LL actually using this sort of argument in reverse to say that a 6 month tenancy is actually an 8 month tenancy because the tenant has to give two months notice at the end of the 6 months.

 

Both ways the argument is nonsense.

 

Certainly it takes time to get a recalcitrant tenant out at the end of the 6 months, but that is due to the inbuilt delays of our legal system, not because there's a new periodic tenancy in place.

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Of course I am. The law doesn't provide for a tenant who ignores a lawful notice to quit, to automatically acquire a new legal tenancy. That would provide lawful benefit for an unlawful act. Even our housing law is not that much of an ass.

 

I have to disagree with completely.

 

A section 21 notice is not a notice to quit. Notices to quit only apply to periodic tenancies and not to fixed term tenancies; they cannot apply to fixed term tenancies because they come to an end by effluxion of time. In relation to periodic tenancies a section 21 notice cannot be a notice to quit because section 5 (1) says: "the service by the landlord of a notice to quit shall be of no effect in relation to a periodic assured tenancy."

 

Apart from that, section 5 (2) is quite clear. If a fixed term assured tenancy comes to an end and the tenant remains in occupation he is entitled to remain in possession and "his right to possession shall depend upon a periodic tenancy arising by virtue of this section."

 

A section 21 notice is a bit of an oddity since it has no effect on the tenancy without some further action; serving one does not on its own bring a tenancy to an end. That is why a tenant under a periodic tenancy cannot just walk away when he pleases when a section 21 notice is served.

 

Should you require judicial confirmation at the level of the Court of Appeal you may refer to McDonald v Fernandez [2004] 1 WLR 1027, [2003] 4 All ER 1033 where Lady Hale quite specifically states that a section 21 notice is not a notice to quit.

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Sorry, I did'nt want to start an argument, lol.:)

 

Webranger. yes my deposit is protected.

 

I did offer to pay the agent the 'August's' rent, but had to use some of it to move some of my belongings into storage in case they tried to get us out. Can I tell them to take the rent out of the deposit?

 

And no, I don't trust the agent, I've since found out, though I paid six months upfront, the estate agent paid the landlord monthly, is this normal, (as the estate agents makes on the interest, while its in their account) dos'nt seem right to me.

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Furnitas: No you can't tell the agent to take the rent out of the deposit. Your tenancy agreement almost certainly expressly forbids it and it would give the agent a real cause against you. Pay him whatever you can on Monday and follow up with the rest as soon as you possibly can beg or borrow it. You need to keep the moral highground.

 

No, it was not ethical of the agent to deal with the rent like that, but unfortunately there is no law that says estate agents have to act ethically.

 

Aequitas: No, I'm not plain wrong. It turns out we are talking about two different S.21 notices. I'm talking about a 21 (1) and you are making reference to a 21 (4).

 

I suggest every visitor to this thread reads http://www.newlawjournal.co.uk/nlj/content/section-21-or-bust which gives a very full explanation including quotes of Lady Hale.

 

Her remarks were in reference to a 21.(4) but I think " This is not a notice to quit. The landlord will not get possession without the tenant's consent unless he goes to court." is just playing with words. I not certain that "Notice to Quit" has any current legal definition but in normal speech requiring possession and telling the occupant to quit have no meaningful difference.

 

So I maintain that a tenant who has been served a valid S.21(1) and does not leave on the due date, does not have a periodic tenancy. If he had, the LL would have to serve another notice which is ridiculous. I fact, LL can take court action immediately because the tenant is remaining in the premises without a valid tenancy. Your interpretation of S.5(2) is only correct if no S.21(1) has been served.

 

Or can you quote case law that says otherwise?

 

In fact, I have been assured -though I cannot validate this - that a valid S.21(1) properly served during the fixed term can be used long after the end of the fixed term without the need for a new S.21(4).

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Let's look at section 21(1) as amended:

 

Without prejudice to any right of the landlord under an assured shorthold tenancy to recover possession of the dwelling-house let on the tenancy in accordance with Chapter I above, on or after the coming to an end of an assured shorthold tenancy which was a fixed term tenancy, a court shall make an order for possession of the dwelling-house if it is satisfied—

 

(a) that the assured shorthold tenancy has come to an end and no further assured tenancy (whether shorthold or not) is for the time being in existence, other than an assured shorthold periodic tenancy (whether statutory or not); and

 

(b) the landlord or, in the case of joint landlords, at least one of them has given to the tenant not less than two months’ notice in writing stating that he requires possession of the dwelling-house.

 

The words in red make it clear that the notice continues to be of effect if there is a periodic tenancy in force; accordingly no further notice needs to be served. Further, the wording clearly takes it for granted that a statutory periodic tenancy can arise when a section 21 notice has been served during a fixed term.

 

Even without that, the effect of section 5 (2) cannot be doubted; no exception is made for the case where a landlord has served a section 21 notice during the fixed term.

 

Regrettably the wording required for a section 21 notice has sown a lot of confusion because it requires the landlord to say that he requires possession. That makes it sort of look like a notice to quit. A notice to quit given by a landlord is more than just a notice that demands possession - it actually brings a periodic tenancy to an end. (And of course a notice to quit given by a tenant states that the tenant will give up possession and equally brings a periodic tenancy to an end.)

 

A notice under section 21 (1) cannot be a notice to quit because a notice to quit can only relate to a periodic tenancy.

 

A notice under section 21 (4) cannot be a notice to quit because section 5 (1) says: "the service by the landlord of a notice to quit shall be of no effect in relation to a periodic assured tenancy" and it cannot possibly be the case that the Act requires the service of a notice that is of no effect.

 

Accordingly either way Lady Hale is correct and not playing with words - she just does not do that!

 

That a number of sites which ought to know better refer to section 21 notices as notices to quit is to be regretted.

 

Your statement that "a valid S.21(1) properly served during the fixed term can be used long after the end of the fixed term without the need for a new S.21(4)" is correct. For the record though it should be noted that once a new fixed term is agreed a new notice needs to be served - see the words in green and red above.

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Hi, what have I started :)

 

to clarify, my 'Notice 21' does not state (1) or (4)

I just reads:

HOUSING ACT 1998

SECTION 21 NOTICE TERMINATING FIXED TERM

ASSURED SHORTHOLD TENACY

We -------,Agents for and on behalf of your Landlord(s) Mr and Mrs --------------, HEREBY GIVE YOU NOTICE that your Landlord or in the case of joint Landlords at least one of them requires possession of the said property on the 29 July 2010 AND THIS NOTICE is given under the provision of Section 21 of the Housing Act 1988.

 

 

Does this help.

 

Alan

Edited by furnitman2003
typo
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Webranger, If as you incorrectly state, a periodic does not automatically arise after the end of a fixed term tenancy if a s.21 has been served, could you enlighten us to what status the 'tenant' does have and how you would remove them from the property. Obviously it cant be s.21 or s.8 as they both related to assured tenancys which you have expressly stated the tenant now no longer has.

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Aequitas has answered Planner's question: if there is NOT already a S.21 in place then a S,21(4) has to be served, but if a S.21(1) HAS been served that is all that is necessary and a new notice for 2 months does NOT have to be served. That's why I nowadays always serve a S.21(1) along with the notice of deposit protection - just in case.

 

Aequitas may be technically right then,:) but we don't differ in the practicalities - that a valid S.21(1) served 2 months or more before then end of the fixed term tenancy can be acted upon in court immediately, in which case the periodic tenancy is meaningless. Whether it exists or not makes no difference to the outcome. It's no good telling a tenant that he has a periodic tenancy but it affords him no protection at all. To me that's just playing with words.

 

Which brings us to the important matter of Alan's predicament. The Notice doesn't have to say (1) or (2) that I can see, and this seems to be valid - although as you have copied it here it says Housing Act 1998 at the top and 1988 at the foot, but I doubt that would make a difference.

 

My advice is still as in my post 30th July at 14.32

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I posted a reply to Planner, but it has disappeared! I'll try again.

 

If a S.21 has been served more than two months before the end of the fixed tenancy, then that is the instrument for going to court for a possession order. Of course, if the LL takes no action on the S.21 then the tenant does have a periodic tenancy, but the S.21 already served is still "live," as we have discussed on another thread.

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