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  1. Hi guys, hope someone can help with this. I was previously on a mobile contract with Orange, got into arrears and arranged a payment plan to clear those arrears over six months. The plan was agreed to in December (2013) and I have been paying as agreed. Viewing the details with Noddle, I found that Orange had not updated my credit score to show I was paying the money back. I have been given two different email addresses to contact their credit file queries team: [email protected] and [email protected], I sent emails on 21st Feb and 7th March respectively and had no reply about it. My new updated credit report now shows a default, despite having made payments as agreed. Is there any way to contact Orange besides email? A few minutes chat would sort all this out and I can carry on making the last few payments.
  2. Hi all, Hoping someone can help me here.. .unsure if I can claim against unfair or constructive dismissal due to the timeframe etc and am seeking advice on what to do and where to go so here goes.... I dismissed from an employed back in August for what they have described as gross misconduct. We worked in a sales environment and from their side they believe myself triggered a commission payment to a junior member of staff deliberately. I did not accept this claim and they dismissed myself but was however offered a lower ranking position where the salary was 5K less and due to the commission I had from my role would total 15K less per year if accepted. There was other incidents in the office where people had done the same and never been penalised and feel this was mainly due to the fact I had 3 weeks off. Senior members of staff including my line manager often let us change "files" into other members of staffs names to ensure they hit target so to me this was quite the norm. We worked in a heavily commissioned sales environment and quite often were tasked with doing junior members of staff roles, telesales etc and this impacted heavily on our commission also. In the May/June I was signed off sick by my doctor for stress and anxiety due to work and a marital split and was continually told by my friends who I worked with/colleagues that if I did not return to work after being signed off I would be demoted on my return. I decided to return after sick leave and was then confronted with the fact my targets were now increased (along with 2 other members of staff) over and above everybody else in the office and having 3 weeks off I was never going to hit these targets and miss out on significant commission payments. I was offered a lower salaried position but declined for financial reasons and the fact I had time off sick and was now even more worried about my job and home etc and felt due to this claim being brought against me I had no choice but to decline their offer of employment and to leave. I worked for the company for 3 years but had 2 breaks from the employer, once in year 1 after 6 months and after 20 months for various reasons including the company threatening to withold commission payments. Any more Q's please feel free to ask - I know I may have missed the deadline to claim but this is now impacting me on future job applications Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks
  3. British Gas broke into businesswoman's home over an unpaid bill despite not having any gas appliances in her flat Read more: http://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/article-2431864/British-Gas-broke-businesswomans-home-unpaid-despite-having-gas-appliances-flat.html#ixzz2gMoyfcLV I would hope they provided this poor woman with more than just an apology !! This is not a one off situation, there are many similar stories on CAG
  4. I missed two payments and called Hitachi to pay specifying that the money was to be allocated to the two months arrears and NOT default charges as I planned to dispute them. Hitachi took my payment and allocated it to charges instead of the arrears so an additional default charge was added to my account the following month! When I challenged this they claimed it was policy to allocate the money to charges first, I checked my credit agreement and this was totally untrue and in fact the opposite! They refused to remove the charges so I continued to pay on time by cheque and wrote accompanying letter instructing that the money was for arrears AND in settlement of all charges and if they did not agree to this settlement then they must not cash the cheque - they cashed the cheque but continued to chase me for charges, I sent another cheque and this time wrote the same terms on the back of the cheque too and they cashed it again but still continued to chase me for those initial charges in addition to charges they kept adding claiming I was still classed as being in arrears as I had not cleared the default charges. Can default charges be classed as arrears? Can a default be logged on your credit file even though you are up to date with agreed payments but have refused to pay default charges? Can Hitachi log a default when they cashed cheques agreeing to my terms of settlement?
  5. I am so angry right now. I received a reminder notice about 2 weeks ago which stated I had not paid my council tax for July. I had. I made the payment, online, on the 29th June. My mistake was that I overpaid by £1 so it was all offset against next years bill. However after speaking to them, they sorted it out and everything was ok. Today I have received a final notice. This states that I now have to pay the amount in full within 7 days or else it goes to court. I have also lost the right to pay by installments. I called the council straight away and they confirmed that they received my payment for July. But, to stop proceedings I now have to pay by Direct Debit. Well, I hate Direct Debits with a passion and I want to use their online payment service. I was told that if I do not pay as they want me to, they will issue a summons. I am just boiling with rage. How can they get a liability order against me for paying my bill using one of their methods (clearly stated on the back of the bill). They also state that I did not make the payment until the 2nd July yet I can prove I made the payment on the 29th June. It does not say to allow 3-5 days for the payment to go through (it does state this for 2 of the other methods of payment though so I would expect it to state the same for online payments if this was the case). I am due to pay tomorrow so I asked them just how they expected me to pay this by direct debit.....I made it clear I will be making a payment tomorrow, online or, if the payment processes quicker, over the telephone. They said this was fine, but for future payments I must pay by DD. Do I really have to? As long as I am paying have they really got a chance of continuing with proceedings? Wouldn't they look a bit stupid in court when I turn up with proof that I am paying my bill in accordance with their instructions and that they have received every payment to date? Waiting for someone else to call me back to explain why they are threatening me with court action for paying my bill using one of their prescribed methods. Should be interesting.
  6. Hi all I would welcome some advice on this please. In September, I upgraded my phone with T Mobile and entered into another 18 month contract. Had a nightmare with the first handset that 2 T Mobile stores were not interested in despite quoting the usual sale of goods act etc. and me taking the handset back on the 10th day after having received it. Eventually, Customer Services on 150 relented and replaced it as a swap out the next day. I got round to reading the manual last weekend to see what exciting things I was missing out on and I decided to download some new screensavers to make the phone a bit more "funky." I then discovered that despite changing all the settings that the screensaver would never activate. The phone display switches over to power save mode, i.e. goes blank instead of displaying the screensaver. I undertook some research into the issue on both T-Mobile's user forums and Nokia's own support discussion forums and it turns out that this is a known software bug in the N79 handset. It also appears that the manufacturer knows about it but has failed to fix it in subsequent firmware releases. It is also unlikely that Nokia will now release any further firmware for the handset as technically, or rather in the technical world, it is now quite an "outdated model." I have emailed T Mobile Customer Relations about this and they have contacted me to say that if the manufacturer is not going to fix it there is nothing that can be done. I however am not happy with this. Surely the goods are not functioning "as described," i.e. the manual states that you can change the screensaver and although you can, the end result is that it doesn't work. I know that a non-functioning screensaver is not a life or death situation i.e. the phone makes calls, sends texts, browses the web but am I the only consumer that is getting a bit sick and tired of companies that earn millions of pounds from their customers getting away with everything? At the end of the day, my contract is subsidising the cost of the handset in a large capacity. If I had purchased this phone directly, it would have cost me a few hundred pounds at least. The crux of it is that I used Nokia phones for years previously and every handset I have had has always had "some problem" of one thing or another. Back around 2003, I had Orange replace 15 handsets, one after the other and each one exhibited the same problem as the last. It was a nightmare. I thought that 6 or so years later, with the advancement in technology that Nokia may have improved it's standards and the first phone I pick up in this 7 year period manufactured by them exhibits yet another fault. I have contacted Nokia, although I am under the impression that it is not down to them to sort the problem out and they have suggested that I send the phone "for repair," which judging by other users on their support forums, does not resolve the problem anyway and just leaves you without a phone for 2 weeks. I was wondering if I could glean some opinions please ? Am I right that the phone is not "functioning as described" and therefore breaches the sale goods act ? Thanks very much J
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