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    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.    Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.   The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved.  Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
    • You can use a family's address.   The only caveat is for the final hearing you'd need to be there in person   HOWEVER i'd expect them to pay if its only £200 because costs of attending will be higher than that
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What happens to ET claim when Respondent is "dissolved"?


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Hi

I would really appreciate the forums suggestion with this problem. I was made unemployed in a "sham" redundancy. Immediately, I filed an ET1 claim etc, etc. The Respondents response was to close the business and file with Company's House to be removed from the Companies Register - (obviously they thought that they had a strong case against me). I applied to Companies House to have the "dissolution" put on hold until after the Employment Tribunal case. But because of a error within Companies house, my second application was lost and Respondent was allowed to be removed from the Register of Companies. Now the Respondent has asked the Tribunal to have the case dismissed. Does anybody have any suggestions about what to do next?

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But because of a error within Companies house' date=' my second application was lost and Respondent was allowed to be removed from the Register of Companies.[/quote']

 

Is Companies House not legally accountable for act/s of negligence??

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Hi

 

Whilst it may preculude the ET claim if there is no-one to identify as a defenadand. You may be able to claim some monies from the national insurance fund. Different definitions of 'going bust' exist depending on the type or organisation your employer was:

 

 

  • if your employer is a company, or a limited liability partnership, insolvency means administration, liquidation, receivership, or a voluntary arrangement with creditors
  • if your employer is an individual, insolvency means bankruptcy (sequestration in Scotland) or a voluntary arrangement with creditors

The insolvency practitioner can be called by one of the following terms depending on the type of insolvency:

 

  • administrator
  • liquidator
  • receiver
  • supervisor (of voluntary arrangement)
  • trustee (in bankruptcy)

Your rights if your employer is insolvent : Directgov - Employment

 

Now provided you were an employee at the effective date that the employer officially went into administration, then you should have satisfied the legal definition of redundancylink3.gif.

 

Redundancy happens when the job ceases to exist s.139 ERA 1996.

 

The question is, during administration when does a job 'cease to exist'

 

It would be prudent to contact the NIF (as they will be the ones paying the award), and checking what criteria they apply as regards effective dates, get advice on completing RP1 etc

 

0845 145 0004

 

Hope this helps

 

Che

...................................................................... [FONT=Comic Sans MS]Please post on a thread before sending a PM. My opinion's are not expressed as agent or representative of The Consumer Action Group. Always seek professional advice from a qualified legal adviser before acting. If I have helped you please feel free to click on the black star.[/FONT] [FONT=Comic Sans MS] I am sorry that work means I don't get into the Employment Forum as often as I would like these days, but nonetheless I'll try to pop in when I can.[/FONT] [FONT=Arial Black][FONT=Comic Sans MS][COLOR=Red]'Venceremos' :wink:[/COLOR][/FONT][/FONT]

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On the other hand, according to the OP's post they were made redundant (allegedly a sham) and the employer dissolved thereafter. So the job ceased to exist before the employer dissolved, whether fairly or not. There is now no legal entity to act as the respondant, so whether the redundancy was fair or not is moot. Assuming that the OP was paid whatever redundancy payment was due (whiich I am, because they have not alleged that monies were not paid - just that the redundancy was a sham), then there is no monies owed. The OP was not an employee of the company when it went "bust" - because they have alreday stated that the company dissolved after the redundancy.

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On the other hand, according to the OP's post they were made redundant (allegedly a sham) and the employer dissolved thereafter. So the job ceased to exist before the employer dissolved,

 

Do not disagree, which is why I did say, "...provided you were an employee at the effective date that the employer officially went into administration." - which is indeed a point that may not apply here.

 

I suppose we need to ask Pennysdad what they were claiming in the ET - was it just UD or they alleging monies are owed?

 

Also there might be some mileage in a claim against Companies House if you can prove they were negligent and you have as a consequence suffered loss.

 

Think we need a bit more info Dad

 

Che

...................................................................... [FONT=Comic Sans MS]Please post on a thread before sending a PM. My opinion's are not expressed as agent or representative of The Consumer Action Group. Always seek professional advice from a qualified legal adviser before acting. If I have helped you please feel free to click on the black star.[/FONT] [FONT=Comic Sans MS] I am sorry that work means I don't get into the Employment Forum as often as I would like these days, but nonetheless I'll try to pop in when I can.[/FONT] [FONT=Arial Black][FONT=Comic Sans MS][COLOR=Red]'Venceremos' :wink:[/COLOR][/FONT][/FONT]

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I don't know if this is relevant guys, and it might be covered by Elche's link. I thought there was a government fund for redundancy if an employer went bust. Is that relevant here?

 

My best, HB

 

There is. But it does not seem that redundancy or other pay is the issue. The OP said that they had lodged a claim for a "sham redundancy (I assume unfair dismissal is the claim, but it isn't clear). So it would appear also that they have been made redundant but claim it wasn't a genuine redundancy. The employer dissolved AFTER this, and after the ET1 was lodged. So there is no longer a respondant to answer the claim.

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Hi Everybody

Thanks everybody for your input, to clarify the situation. The company was dissolved after I was made "redundant" and had filed my ET1 for unfair dismissal with the Employment Tribunal. I'm really interested to know if there are any precedents for a company being restored to the Register of Companies, because of a clear mistake at Companies House? Does anybody know???? Is this loophole being widely used to escape Employment Tribunals? If so how do we "close" it????

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I think your circumstance is rather unusual. Yes, companies often dissolve in order to avoid tribunals (although not in large numbers, admittedly). But they generally get away with it because the claimant doesn't know before the company is dissolved. I have never come across a situation where Companies House have dissolved a company after objections have been made, so I couldn't say for certain whether this can be overturned. There are provisions for a court to restore a company - but it would cost you to do this, and it may not be worth throwing good money after bad. To be honest company law isn't my area, so I'm a bit (as in very) rusty on it. But even if this were to be the case - is it actually worth it. Even if the company was put back into existence, I cannot see how its assets will be recreated. And there is very little point in winning (assuming you do) to be told that there is no money to pay any award. The RPS can make SOME contrubution towards an unpaid basic award in that situation - but it may be less money than it has cost you to get the court to restore the company!

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Hi,

Please could somebody tell me what a Respondent should do with medical records once the employment tribunal case that required them is over. Are they returned to the Claimant? Or does the Respondent keep them? If the Respondent does keep them is the Respondent responsible for their safe keeping? Is it proper for the Claimant to ask for their return?

I would be interested to hear from anybody else who has had to hand over their medical records at the request of an Employment Tribunal.

Thanks in advance:?:

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Is the Respondent represented (by a legal firm)? If so, what will happen is that their file, plus one copy of everything supporting (bundles, documents etc) will go into storage (secure) for six years. Anything remaining copies will be (securely) shredded.

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It does not help if you start new threads! I assune this is linked to your last enquiry? In which case I am confused, as it seems that the respondent does not exist - so how could they have asked for medical records?

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  • 2 weeks later...

First of all, sorry about posting two separate questions; I apologize for any confusion it was not deliberate on my part.

 

Secondly to put the timeline of events into perspective: At the time the medical records were given to the Respondent, the Respondent had not applied for dissolution at Companies House.

 

Whilst the medical records were in the hands of the Respondent the company was accidently removed from the Register of Companies. Since then the Respondent appointed a new legal representative, who has admitted that all the company records have been "lost".

 

I wrote and complained to the Employment Tribunal about this loss, but the Tribunal's response was less than helpful as they said there was nothing they could do. I find this amazing that an person can be instructed by the Tribunal to hand over their highly personal and confidential records to a Respondent, over can then "lose" them without any penalty or comeback.

 

Yes, I realize the documents were handed over to a corporate entity which no longer exists - but surely somebody has to be "responsible".

 

Then miraculously the Medical Records reappeared only to be used as a "bartering piece" as the Respondent sought to - only to disappear again.

Edited by citizenB
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