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    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
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      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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CP Plus parking ticket on Morrisons car park


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your wife (ill advisedly) paid the original invoices, so that matter is closed.

 

'Recoup' ? I'm not sure this was a question being asked, but even if it was - what do you base that premise on? 6 years to claim a debt perhaps - but this was a novice sent and the service paid for.

 

To later try to say actually you didn't agree with the bill, and didn't really mean to pay it and please can you have your money back, isn't going to cut it. Especially after the event.

 

Not sure you're getting the gist of this. This is 'not agreeing with the bill' - this is being tricked into paying an intentionally misleading unenforceable invoice.

 

Of course you can claim back the money in small claims and of course you wouldn't be just saying 'please can I have my money back'. This is contract law - since when have you been allowed to send out invoices for fake amounts and being allowed to keep it if the other party mistakenly pays it???

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(1) Afraid making payment IS agreement. To assert otherwise is that it was made under duress or harassment, and this would have to be proved first - and almost impossible to do so.

 

(2) The Invoice was for services rendered - their argument being the customer agreed to the terms of parking, and when billed for the transgression then paid up. Attempting to roll this back to say there was no agreement invokes side arguments that make such recovery difficult, if not impossible.

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Sorry, that's plain incorrect.

 

1.) We've seen it done for paid PPC invoices.

2.) We've seen it done for paid clamping charges.

3.) We've seen it done for bank charges.

3.) Payment isn't agreement. The original contract cannot be misrepresented by one party in an attempt to coerce payment. The original contract can be examined at a later date by either party.

4.) Their argument is indeed that the customer agreed to the terms of parking, but we all know that is baloney. Unenforceable contract clauses do not suddenly become enforceable by means of payment. Yes, agreement is an aspect of whether the sum is recoverable, but you'd have a difficult job proving payment alone is all that's needed. 'Innocently' incorrect invoices would be enforceable otherwise - an incorrect BT bill for £500 instead of £50 wouldn't become binding if the higher sum was accidently paid.

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Very selective.

 

You've seen 'what' done, exactly? Asking a PCC for payments made to be refunded? And they did?

 

Ditto for Clamping Companies? Or what you are really saying that for those who raised court action to seek redress/refund, they got their money back?

 

If so, I do not doubt it, and congratulate those that have done so. However, that wasnt the point being made, you have to (a) go to court, and (b) convince a judge that you have a valid claim. This is not a stroll in the park, and an assured win, as you appear to imply.

 

Bank Charges - not the same, payment has not been 'made' it has been 'taken', a very different issue.

 

As to your last point - invoices are never 'binding', especially those that form the basis of an ongoing 'account'. Your BT bill example remains valid with a following credit note to modify the error and correct the situation, which again has no relevance to this discussion.

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All my points refer to making an effective claim in court (not out of court), but you're saying that's impossible because you've no redress if you've paid somebody.

 

Re. bank charges, you've made the payment in advance through the pre-agreed contract. Nothing's being 'taken', you're claiming what you've paid them through contractual terms that have since come to your attention as being unfair (obviously not much chance of that now, but the point remains you could reclaim in small claims).

 

Re. BT - your point would mean that they didn't have to correct their invoice if they didn't want to because you apparently have no redress if you pay an incorrect invoice because you have somehow accepted the sum. The bill is never 'valid' if it's incorrect. Of course, practically BT would refund/credit you. An ordinary invoice is highly relevant to this conversation because that is all a PPC ticket is.

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You have no 'automatic redress' because if you have paid, there is an expectation you agreed to service(es) being supplied and agreed to them. What you outline is a 'change-of-mind' and therefore requires the court to evaluate the transaction on the basis that you accepted the service and now wish to get out of paying for it.

 

This is a very different scenario as the consumer is the one on the back-foot. Sure, there may be cases that the court will agree, but the mountain must still be climbed. Like chargebacks, this isn't a 'right' but a process of negotiation. Like those that use their CC to pay for clamp removal with the expectation that they'll just get it refunded by complaining to their card issuer is flawed.

 

Back at BT. I'm surprised you have never come across this before, we're not talking about £50 becoming £500 in error, but lets say you stop a service, but the bill has already been created showing that amount being billed. BT's advice (and indeed any other telco) is to PAY the billed amount, even though it is 'wrong', this is because if you pay what you deem is the correct amount the billing system will see this as an underpayment. (And no doubt whack on additional punitive charges as part of their drive to stiff the consumer). Now, the next bill will have a credit showing, that will bring the original amount billed back to what it should have been... but now the consumer has to fight to get back whatever feel the billing system added for your late payment (as not clearing the due balance in full is seen as a late payment).

 

No, I don't think this is right, but what are you going to do? It is often easier to play their game as it means the payments are in sync with the billing system with its oh-so-clever booby-traps do not tie you down to endless CS calls to right a wrong (that probably shouldn't have happened in the first place).

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Here of course is where we run into a problem in that "is there intelligent life in a PPC" - probably more chance of finding it on Mars or Venus.

 

...or Uranus.....;)

 

Good morning all

 

These people who issue these tickets are as responsible as the Company they 'work' for and as such are liable to prosecution under the 'Aid, Abet, Counsel or Procure' procedure.

 

I would suggest they consider alternative employment...or risk a holiday at one of HM's Fun Parks...:)

 

As always

 

Dougal

Update: 2013 Following our recent (9/7/13) hearing about Bank Charges at the Court of Appeal, and refusal to grant permission to Appeal; an Application has just (23/10/2013) been made for a fresh hearing and the Court Location is yet to be confirmed!

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(1) Afraid making payment IS agreement. To assert otherwise is that it was made under duress or harassment, and this would have to be proved first - and almost impossible to do so.

 

(2) The Invoice was for services rendered - their argument being the customer agreed to the terms of parking, and when billed for the transgression then paid up. Attempting to roll this back to say there was no agreement invokes side arguments that make such recovery difficult, if not impossible.

 

Good morning all

 

I a sorry but as far as the law is concerned this is not accurate. The invoice itself is actually invalid, as it has no grounds in law - only in the belief of the company that they can issue tickets in this way.

 

The reason is that the Car Park itself is private property, and the many tickets I have seen from a lot of different people, appear to 'represent' themselves as being issued under particular Acts of Law, which do not relate to private property.

 

It is true to say that you may be asked to pay a fee for parking on private property by the owner of the land. He/she may also employ someone to collect that money on his/her behalf. He/she may also pay that person (or company) for doing so. He/she may bank the money so received.

 

However the parking company he/she employs may NOT issue tickets of its own volition for 'parking charges' on private land which it does not own.

 

The ONLY person who can enforce non-payment is the owner of the land.

 

To claim otherwise is in my opinion an act of dishonesty. The issuing of County Court documents stating otherwise is (again in my opinion) a deliberate act of Fraud.

 

If whoever owns the land (usually a supermarket or similar) want to charge you for parking they should clearly say so and have arrangements for doing so in place.

 

I would ask the 'parking companies' (CP Plus and others), one question:

 

"Please can you tell me which Act of Law valid within the United Kingdom do you issue these parking tickets under?"

 

You will find that the answer is : None.!

 

Simply ignore them or report them to the Police.

 

As always

 

Dougal

Update: 2013 Following our recent (9/7/13) hearing about Bank Charges at the Court of Appeal, and refusal to grant permission to Appeal; an Application has just (23/10/2013) been made for a fresh hearing and the Court Location is yet to be confirmed!

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Dougal, what you overlook is that payment IS acceptance. (What 'reasonable person' would pay for something for services not agreed or supplied?).

 

Since the pursuit of a refund (since the expectation is that the PPC will ignore you and/or reject your claim) they can either fight the consumer in court, to justify their position, and they will have the upper hand in law, Of course, they may not be bothered to travelling 100's of miles to defend an action and lose with the pursuer getting judgement by default, which although a victory for the consumer, just shows it is cheaper in real terms for them not to defend.

 

Then there's getting the money awarded. Each step of the way the consumer must pay more in the expectation of repayment (and no guarantee of success), and any fly-by-night outfit can simply close down and re-form for a cost less that the money they are asked to pay.

 

As for 'reporting them to the Police' - this is a civil matter, and the complainant will be told this. As for which 'Law' these tickets are issued... there IS no mystery, it's Contract Law.

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But the point you've missed is that there is a very obvious ground for reclaiming payment of a PPC ticket: mistake induced by its misleading presentation. Just about everyone who pays such a ticket does because they believe it's a real parking ticket.

Post by me are intended as a discussion of the issues involved, as these are of general interest to me and others on the forum. Although it is hoped such discussion will be of use to readers, before exposing yourself to risk of loss you should not rely on any principles discussed without confirming the situation with a qualified person.

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Nope, not forgotten it - as it is an irrelevance. The purchaser has certain responsibilities to ensure they are properly paying for services rendered. You seem to think this 'nanny state' of ours will take care of it all? It will not.

 

Going back 20 years, the favourite was the 'directory [problem]' where firms were sent Invoices (very official looking - but that was the point). It was for a directory entry, or A4 paper, or manilla envelopes, anything that a firm would reasonably purchase in its course of business. Many of these were passed to the accounts department and paid with the genuine ones. Once the error was spotted, how successful do you thin they were in getting this money paid back? None that I've been aware of, because the mistake was theirs, they had to pay for their own stupidity.

 

Nothing has changed in the intervening years. No PPC has been prosecuted for misrepresentation, even though they use terms like (1) PCN (2) Appeal (3) Fine, and have pseudo-enforcement trading names like 'County Parking' and a whole bucketload of similar styles (CPS, anyone?) to lend credibility to their business model.

 

Once the money has been paid over, getting it back is the problem. It is not for the first time I have heard a judge imply the pursuer should have been more diligent before parting with their money. This is not to say some actions would be successful, each will depend on its own merits - but it would be foolish to mislead CAGgers that any payment they make that turns out to be a mistake is easily recoverable. It isn't, and it never will be.

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I know your not - but it remains important not to simplify the situation so that it appears to be a mere formality. I've seen PPCs fail ONLY because of the visibility of their signage ('invisibility' actually) so the imagined contract was just that... a figment of the PPCs business model. :)

 

However I have seen 1 case (by accident) where the PPC won, and the pursuer's action dismissed, as they admitted they saw the signage and did overstay the time period, therefore paying and seeking a subsequent repayment was illogical (to the judge).

 

By all means never pay, and stand your ground, the chances of action to pursue you will most likely come to nothing. Pay, and then attempt recovery through the courts is less assured, and a risk that needs to be calculated.

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Dougal, what you overlook is that payment IS acceptance. (What 'reasonable person' would pay for something for services not agreed or supplied?).

 

Since the pursuit of a refund (since the expectation is that the PPC will ignore you and/or reject your claim) they can either fight the consumer in court, to justify their position, and they will have the upper hand in law, Of course, they may not be bothered to travelling 100's of miles to defend an action and lose with the pursuer getting judgement by default, which although a victory for the consumer, just shows it is cheaper in real terms for them not to defend.

 

Then there's getting the money awarded. Each step of the way the consumer must pay more in the expectation of repayment (and no guarantee of success), and any fly-by-night outfit can simply close down and re-form for a cost less that the money they are asked to pay.

 

As for 'reporting them to the Police' - this is a civil matter, and the complainant will be told this. As for which 'Law' these tickets are issued... there IS no mystery, it's Contract Law.

 

Good morning

 

Whilst I bow to your status as a Royalties member, I really must take issue with a couple of points:

 

1. It is NOT Contract Law in England. A read of (a) the Preamble and (b) the Law of Contract will show clearly that a contract is entered into by two (usually) parties on an equal understanding of their own and the other's position and liabilities.

 

2. If the Police tell you it is a 'Civil Matter', you need to do two things

 

(A). Get the name and warrant number of the Officer who told you that (incidentally NEVER just ask their counter staff they are no longer serving Police officers, they are civilian staff.) and then;

(B). Make a complaint to the IPCC. It IS a Criminal matter. The actions of these clowns falls completely within the definitions found in the old Theft Act and the Fraud Act 2006.

 

Finally if a Legal definition of these 'parking firms' position exists then please point me towards it!¬

 

I personally have successfully defeated several 'Parking Penalty Charge' tickets from different companies. I also believe (though I have yet to fully test this), that the Company that employ these people to 'look after' their car parks are also guilty of an offence (certainly under the Aid, Abet, Counsel and Procure procedure). Maybe I'll try that tactic next time - which I am sure is not far away!

 

Strange isn't it? No one seems to have written/contacted the stores that use these 'services', and asked for their view. (mentioning in the letter that the actions of these parking firms are unlawful) - definitely in my view!

 

As always each of us must take our own course in life,

 

Best wishes to all

 

Dougal

Update: 2013 Following our recent (9/7/13) hearing about Bank Charges at the Court of Appeal, and refusal to grant permission to Appeal; an Application has just (23/10/2013) been made for a fresh hearing and the Court Location is yet to be confirmed!

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I think you'll find CAG lives in the 'real' world - one where actual events are relevant, not what might be ideals (whether real or imagined) and open the door to time-wasting tangents that will, ultimately do nothing to further a satisfactory resolution, or indeed solve the problem at all.

 

As to your numbered points -

 

When the signage states 'use of this CP means you have agreed to these terms' and the parker then does just that, there is an assumption that such an agreement has been made. Often this is a load of bunkum, but enough to ensure litigation can go the distance (rather than be summarily dismissed)

 

By all means insist it is a criminal matter. And this will achieve what? At best a 50/50 decision, and in the event you get a decision in your favour, it will then require someone to find the time from their busy schedule to actually do something about it. Because the've been told to do so does not engender a positive pursuit of the case - in fact quite the opposite.

 

Regarding Aid, Abet, Counsel and Procure procedure - I would suggest this wouldn't even get to the prosecution stage, as it is irrelevant to a civil action, and the police have much more serious abuses to deal with. So how you could use this as a 'tactic' eludes me.

 

The stores HAVE been contacted by disgruntled parkers - read responses from Tesco, where they are apologetic, but go on to state that (effectively) they need this level control to prevent parking anarchy.

 

When you see th (mis)use of special disabled spaces by able motorists, I quite agree with them.

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  • 1 year later...

RE: CP Plus Ltd £50 charge notice

 

Just had one of these slapped on my car today when i was shopping at Morrisons,it says if pay within 14 days i only need to pay £25 and if i do not pay within 28 days my details will be obtained from the DVLA resulting in further action and a £40 admin added to the initial £50.

 

I usually get a parking ticket from the machine but today none of the machines would take the £2 coin i had so i assumed they werent working, i thought f**k it and went into morrisons for 30mins came back and found notice stuck on my window.

 

Also,not sure if i should have done this but in a fit of rage i sent them an email disputing the charge

 

Should i just igore this notice and any letters i receive from them ???

 

Cheers

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RE: CP Plus Ltd £50 charge notice

 

Just had one of these slapped on my car today when i was shopping at Morrisons,it says if pay within 14 days i only need to pay £25 and if i do not pay within 28 days my details will be obtained from the DVLA resulting in further action and a £40 admin added to the initial £50.

 

The registered keepers details will be obtained, which may or may not be you:wink:

 

I usually get a parking ticket from the machine but today none of the machines would take the £2 coin i had so i assumed they werent working, i thought f**k it and went into morrisons for 30mins came back and found notice stuck on my window.

 

Also,not sure if i should have done this but in a fit of rage i sent them an email disputing the charge

 

Not really a good idea. Now they will send you a response saying 'your appeal' has failed and pay their begging letter.

 

Should i just igore this notice and any letters i receive from them ???

 

YES

 

Cheers

regards

Please remember our troops, fighting and dying in our name. God protect them.

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please start a new thread

 

follow my sig below

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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