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    • its not about the migrants .. Barrister Helena Kennedy warns that the Conservatives will use their victory over Rwanda to dismantle the law that protects our human rights here in the UK.   Angela Rayner made fun of Rishi Sunak’s height in a fiery exchange at Prime Minister’s Questions, which prompted Joe Murphy to ask: just how low will Labour go? .. well .. not as low as sunak 
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    • The property was our family home.  A fixed low rate btl/ development loan was given (last century!). It was derelict. Did it up/ was rented out for a while.  Then moved in/out over the years (mostly around school)  It was a mix of rental and family home. The ad-hoc rents covered the loan amply.  Nowadays  banks don't allow such a mix.  (I have written this before.) Problems started when the lease was extended and needed to re-mortgage to cover the expense.  Wanted another btl.  Got a tenant in situ. Was located elsewhere (work). A broker found a btl lender, they reneged.  Broker didn't find another btl loan.  The tenant was paying enough to cover the proposed annual btl mortgage in 4 months. The broker gave up trying to find another.  I ended up on a bridge and this disastrous path.  (I have raised previous issues about the broker) Not sure what you mean by 'split'.  The property was always leasehold with a separate freeholder  The freeholder eventually sold the fh to another entity by private agreement (the trust) but it's always been separate.  That's quite normal.  One can't merge titles - unless lease runs out/ is forfeited and new one is not created/ granted. The bridge lender had a special condition in loan offer - their own lawyer had to check title first.  Check that lease wasn't onerous and there was nothing that would affect good saleability.  The lawyer (that got sacked for dishonesty) signed off the loan on the basis the lease and title was good and clean.  The same law firm then tried to complain the lease clauses were onerous and the lease too short, even though the loan was to cover a 90y lease extension!! 
    • Northmonk forget what I said about your Notice to Hirer being the best I have seen . Though it  still may be  it is not good enough to comply with PoFA. Before looking at the NTH, we can look at the original Notice to Keeper. That is not compliant. First the period of parking as sated on their PCN is not actually the period of parking but a misstatement  since it is only the arrival and departure times of your vehicle. The parking period  is exactly that -ie the time youwere actually parked in a parking spot.  If you have to drive around to find a place to park the act of driving means that you couldn't have been parked at the same time. Likewise when you left the parking place and drove to the exit that could not be describes as parking either. So the first fail is  failing to specify the parking period. Section9 [2][a] In S9[2][f] the Act states  (ii)the creditor does not know both the name of the driver and a current address for service for the driver, the creditor will (if all the applicable conditions under this Schedule are met) have the right to recover from the keeper so much of that amount as remains unpaid; Your PCN fails to mention the words in parentheses despite Section 9 [2]starting by saying "The notice must—..." As the Notice to Keeper fails to comply with the Act,  it follows that the Notice to Hirer cannot be pursued as they couldn't get the NTH compliant. Even if the the NTH was adjudged  as not  being affected by the non compliance of the NTK, the Notice to Hirer is itself not compliant with the Act. Once again the PCN fails to get the parking period correct. That alone is enough to have the claim dismissed as the PCN fails to comply with PoFA. Second S14 [5] states " (5)The notice to Hirer must— (a)inform the hirer that by virtue of this paragraph any unpaid parking charges (being parking charges specified in the notice to keeper) may be recovered from the hirer; ON their NTH , NPE claim "The driver of the above vehicle is liable ........" when the driver is not liable at all, only the hirer is liable. The driver and the hirer may be different people, but with a NTH, only the hirer is liable so to demand the driver pay the charge  fails to comply with PoFA and so the NPE claim must fail. I seem to remember that you have confirmed you received a copy of the original PCN sent to  the Hire company plus copies of the contract you have with the Hire company and the agreement that you are responsible for breaches of the Law etc. If not then you can add those fails too.
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      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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A Fitnote Query???


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I have an employee that hurt her back at home on 05.08.12. She came into work on 06.08.12 and started to work without mentioning the back injury when I asked her if she was ok she replied 'not really I've hurt my back' to which I immediately asked her if she wanted to go home. She insisted on staying after an hour and a half I could see she was struggling so i again suggested she went home - at this point she agreed that she couldn't continue and left.

 

I didn't hear anything from her on the 07.08.12 and texted her on 08.08.12 to find out what was happening? She texted back to say that she couldn't get into the doctors until 10:50am the next day on 09.08.12. Later that day she brought in a Fitnote signing her off work for 1 week.

 

Today I am entering the absence data into a program I have when I realised that the Fitnote is signed as 'I assessed your case on: 13.08.12' - This is where my problem lies!

 

The date applied by the doctor to the Fitnote states the assessment date was 3 days after she was actually seen pre-dating the fitnote. The 'FROM' and 'TO' date has not been filled in on the form either it has only been marked as 'You are not fit for work' :jaw:

 

My question is this? How do I stand with this? I have phoned the doctors to see why they have pre-dated a Fitnote but the doctor who signed it was not available today. The Fitnote was actually signed and presented to me on 09.08.12 so how can the doctor write that the day of assessment was 3 days in advance? Is this legal?

 

I've tried to find guidelines on the writing of Fitnotes by Doctors and I know that they can be back-dated but can they be pre-dated?

 

Any advice would be most greatly received.

 

Kindest regards

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I expect they mean "abstain from work until the 13th". Clearly it's an error, nothing to get excited about. Just ask your employee to get a proper one.

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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I expect they mean "abstain from work until the 13th". Clearly it's an error, nothing to get excited about. Just ask your employee to get a proper one.

 

Thanks for your comment but I think you have miss-read? The Fitnote was issued on 09.08.12 but was pre-dated to 13.08.12 3 days into the future. My question is: Is this allowed/legal? If the fitnote was issued on 09.08.12 and was handed to me on this date surely the time off required would be 1 week and 2 days?

 

It was signed on 09.08.12 giving 1 week off so the return to work date for this person is tomorrow but the fitnotes assessment date was declared by the doctor to be 13.08.12 which is impossible as it was in my po cession before then. Surely this is not allowed as this is fraud???

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I think you mean issued on 13th and predated to 9th?

 

I'm not sure it's worth fussing over. did you give your employee a self cert. to fill in for the first few days off? That'd cover it.

 

Just pass the problem back to the employee to get you proper notes, self cert or GP, that cover the required period.

 

No clue about legalities as I am not a GP. But I do think you are a tad over excited. Humans make mistakes!

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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I think you mean issued on 13th and predated to 9th?

 

I'm not sure it's worth fussing over. did you give your employee a self cert. to fill in for the first few days off? That'd cover it.

 

Just pass the problem back to the employee to get you proper notes, self cert or GP, that cover the required period.

 

No clue about legalities as I am not a GP. But I do think you are a tad over excited. Humans make mistakes!

 

NO! It was given to me on 09.08.12 but pre-signed to the 13.08.12 so I don't mean the other way around and I'm not overexcited! I posted on here because I'm looking to see if someone has guidance on whether or not a doctor can pre-date a Fitnote so if you do noty know then that is fine I'll wait until someone else in the know can answer my enquiry.

 

Thanks for your help :-D

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issued on 9th and dated 13th is post dated surely? not pre-signed?

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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ok. so they have issued a note that starts on the day that self certification ends, which makes some sense at least.

 

but without a time period in which they may return to work, it is still useless to you.

 

The doctor is not obliged to discuss anything with you so I still say you need to pass it back to the employee to get their documentation in order. You will require a self cert and then an accurate fit note if they are still unable to return to work.

 

I have checked the CIPD website and can find nothing on legality or otherwise. It would be highly unusual to seek legal redress for this, as I am not sure what your actual loss is.

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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Its just a badly filled out form, which is not unusual for a GP, the post-dating as Emmzzi said is to go from the end of the self-certification date, its unusual for a GP to do this, but certainly not illegal, as you self certificate first then have the note to fill in the rest of the time off.

 

I would hand it back to allow the employee/GP to fill in the rest. Or ask for another note with expected return date on it.

I am not a legal professional or adviser, I am however a Law Student and very well versed areas of Employment Law. Anything I write here is purely from my own experiences! If I help, then click the star to add to my reputation :)

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