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There have been cases where a judge has seen the absence of a creditors signature as De Minimis so it would be likely that if the signature was present before yours it would be seen in the same light.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Am I reading what you say in the correct way, that the law would not place (based on those cases) to much on which order the signatures arrived as to make any difference to the enforceabilty of the agreement..

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Am I reading what you say in the correct way, that the law would not place (based on those cases) to much on which order the signatures arrived as to make any difference to the enforceabilty of the agreement..

There have been cases where judges have ignored the fact that the lenders signature has been totally missing from an agreement so I would think it would be safe to say that the fact that they may have signed it prior to the borrower would be looked upon the same.... it's a judge lottery I'm afraid.

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