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    • S13 (2)The creditor may not exercise the right under paragraph 4 to recover from the keeper any unpaid parking charges specified in the notice to keeper if, within the period of 28 days beginning with the day after that on which that notice was given, the creditor is given— (a)a statement signed by or on behalf of the vehicle-hire firm to the effect that at the material time the vehicle was hired to a named person under a hire agreement; (b)a copy of the hire agreement; and (c)a copy of a statement of liability signed by the hirer under that hire agreement. As  Arval has complied with the above they cannot be pursued by EC----- ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- S14 [1]   the creditor may recover those charges (so far as they remain unpaid) from the hirer. (2)The conditions are that— (a)the creditor has within the relevant period given the hirer a notice in accordance with sub-paragraph (5) (a “notice to hirer”), together with a copy of the documents mentioned in paragraph 13(2) and the notice to keeper; (b)a period of 21 days beginning with the day on which the notice to hirer was given has elapsed;  As ECP did not send copies of the documents to your company and they have given 28 days instead of 21 days they have failed to comply with  the Act so you and your Company are absolved from paying. That is not to say that they won't continue asking to be paid as they do not have the faintest idea how PoFA works. 
    • Euro have got a lot wrong and have failed to comply with the Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 Schedule 4.  According to Section 13 after ECP have written to Arval they should then send a NTH to the Hirer  which they have done.This eliminates Arval from any further pursuit by ECP. When they wrote to your company they should have sent copies of everything that they asked Arval for. This is to prove that your company agree what happened on the day of the breach. If ECP then comply with the Act they are allowed to pursue the hirer. If they fail, to comply they cannot make the hirer pay. They can pursue until they are blue in the face but the Hirer is not lawfully required to pay them and if it went to Court ECP would lose. Your company could say who was driving but the only person that can be pursued is the Hirer, there does not appear to be an extension for a driver to be pursued. Even if there was, because ECP have failed miserably to comply with the Act  they still have no chance of winning in Court. Here are the relevant Hire sections from the Act below.
    • Thank-you FTMDave for your feedback. May I take this opportunity to say that after reading numerous threads to which you are a contributor, I have great admiration for you. You really do go above and beyond in your efforts to help other people. The time you put in to help, in particular with witness statements is incredible. I am also impressed by the way in which you will defer to others with more experience should there be a particular point that you are not 100% clear on and return with answers or advice that you have sought. I wish I had the ability to help others as you do. There is another forum expert that I must also thank for his time and patience answering my questions and allowing me to come to a “penny drops” moment on one particular issue. I believe he has helped me immensely to understand and to strengthen my own case. I shall not mention who it is here at the moment just in case he would rather I didn't but I greatly appreciate the time he took working through that issue with me. I spent 20+ years of working in an industry that rules and regulations had to be strictly adhered to, indeed, exams had to be taken in order that one had to become qualified in those rules and regulations in order to carry out the duties of the post. In a way, such things as PoFA 2012 are rules and regulations that are not completely alien to me. It has been very enjoyable for me to learn these regulations and the law surrounding them. I wish I had found this forum years ago. I admit that perhaps I had been too keen to express my opinions given that I am still in the learning process. After a suitable period in this industry I became Qualified to teach the rules and regulations and I always said to those I taught that there is no such thing as a stupid question. If opinions, theories and observations are put forward, discussion can take place and as long as the result is that the student is able to clearly see where they went wrong and got to that moment where the penny drops then that is a valuable learning experience. No matter how experienced one is, there is always something to learn and if I did not know the answer to a question, I would say, I don't know the answer to that question but I will go and find out what the answer is. In any posts I have made, I have stated, “unless I am wrong” or “as far as I can see” awaiting a response telling me what I got wrong, if it was wrong. If I am wrong I am only too happy to admit it and take it as a valuable learning experience. I take the point that perhaps I should not post on other peoples threads and I shall refrain from doing so going forward. 🤐 As alluded to, circumstances can change, FTMDave made the following point that it had been boasted that no Caggers, over two years, who had sent a PPC the wrong registration snotty letter, had even been taken to court, let alone lost a court hearing .... but now they have. I too used the word "seemed" because it is true, we haven't had all the details. After perusing this forum I believe certain advice changed here after the Beavis case, I could be wrong but that is what I seem to remember reading. Could it be that after winning the above case in question, a claimant could refer back to this case and claim that a defendant had not made use of the appeal process, therefore allowing the claimant to win? Again, in this instance only, I do not know what is to be gained by not making an appeal or concealing the identity of the driver, especially if it is later admitted that the defendant was the driver and was the one to input the incorrect VRN in error. So far no one has educated me as to the reason why. But, of course, when making an appeal, it should be worded carefully so that an error in the appeal process cannot be referred back to. I thought long and hard about whether or not to post here but I wanted to bring up this point for discussion. Yes, I admit I have limited knowledge, but does that mean I should have kept silent? After I posted that I moved away from this forum slightly to find other avenues to increase my knowledge. I bought a law book and am now following certain lawyers on Youtube in the hope of arming myself with enough ammunition to use in my own case. In one video titled “7 Reasons You Will LOSE Your Court Case (and how to avoid them)” by Black Belt Barrister I believe he makes my point by saying the following, and I quote: “If you ignore the complaint in the first instance and it does eventually end up in court then it's going to look bad that you didn't co-operate in the first place. The court is not going to look kindly on you simply ignoring the company and not, let's say, availing yourself of any kind of appeal opportunities, particularly if we are talking about parking charge notices and things like that.” This point makes me think that, it is not such a bizarre judgement in the end. Only in the case of having proof of payment and inputting an incorrect VRN .... could it be worthwhile making a carefully worded appeal in the first instance? .... If the appeal fails, depending on the reason, surely this could only help if it went to court? As always, any feedback gratefully received.
    • To which official body does one make a formal complaint about a LPA fixed charge receiver? Does one make a complaint first to the company employing the appointed individuals?    Or can one complain immediately to an official body, such as nara?    I've tried researching but there doesn't seem a very clear route on how to legally hold them to account for wrongful behaviour.  It seems frustratingly complicated because they are considered to be officers of the court and held in high esteem - and the borrower is deemed liable for their actions.  Yet what does the borrower do when disclosure shows clear evidence of wrong-doing? Does anyone have any pointers please?
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Temp Agencies and Holiday Pay?


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Hi and thanks in advance to any responses!

 

My partner has been employed by an agency in Bristol on a temp basis, the wages were described as follows £7.04 PH inc. Holiday Pay, which equates to: £6.50 PH without the holiday pay, are they allowed to do this? whats more annoying is that any overtime is paid at the lower rate of £6.50 as there is no entitlement to holiday pay with regards to overtime as it has already been paid!

 

Yours in anticipation!!

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Hi there.

 

I used to work in a temp agency, so might be able to help.

 

Your other half should have been given a contract of employment and details about the job. Holiday pay sounds about right to me and I'm afraid overtime does not have to be paid at anything other than the standard rate unless it's in his temporary contract.

 

So, check what they say his hourly rate should be and then work out whether they have correctly included holiday pay on top of this.

All help is merely my opinion only - please seek legal advice if you need to as I am only qualified in SEN law.

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  • 2 weeks later...

Hi,

 

This is called "rolled-up" holiday pay, which has been ruled unlawful by the European Court of Justice. All workers are entitled to a minimum of 4 weeks paid holiday, and payment must be made in respect of a period during which leave is taken.

 

This also applies to temp agencies.

 

http://www.dti.gov.uk/employment/employment-legislation/working-time-regs/rolled-up/page29030.html

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Really? The agency I worked for was really crap (although one of the biggest) - doesn't surprise me they got this wrong.

All help is merely my opinion only - please seek legal advice if you need to as I am only qualified in SEN law.

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The ruling was only made in March of 2006, and employers were given some time to make the transition, but yes, it's now illegal as it contravenes the Working Time Directive.

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Guest Alison82

Yes this is correct, you only get paid for the hours you actually work, it sor of evens it's self out as she gets paid that bit extra over the weeks and months so that covers her 20 days holiday.

 

One question whilst on the subject a friend of mine works through an agency and the agency take £4 per hour of what she earns for themselves out of her money! Is this right? I work through one and this does not happen to me!

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It depends on how they show the figure.

 

At my old agency, we only showed the staff what the were earning i.e. after we had taken off the agency fee paid by the client. Some do it a different way - show the total fee and then deduct their fee. If you PM me her payslip or the details that are on it, I'll have a look for you.

All help is merely my opinion only - please seek legal advice if you need to as I am only qualified in SEN law.

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Im with an agency at the moment, I work 12 hour night shifts, earning over £100 per shift. However my holiday pay and apparantly its entirely legal (not that my contract explains this, which apparantly is breaking the law) equals £43 for every shift I take. so where I to take 2 holidays for each shift I work, i STILL wouldnt make as much money as I would working it.

 

I think my contract just gives some bumf about 4 weeks paid holidays etc. I have been told by the agency that its calculated based on how many actual days i work, around 15 per month, though they avoid the issue that every 12 hour shift I work actually therefore encompasses 2 days - start 8.30pm on 1 day finish at 8.30am the next....

 

So, Mrs B is part time, she works 2 hours per day, 31 days a month, so she works about 60 hours, and is entitled to more holidays and holiday pay than me, who would work 15 days (in reality 30 since each shift starts in one and finishes in the next) and work approx 180-200 hours.

 

and considering I have an idea of how much the employer is actually charged by the agency, you would think they could be a little kinder with the holiday pay.. On the other hand, for working Xmas Day I received triple pay (which the employers permanent staff didnt) and Double for boxing day ! Its all swings and roundabouts, with an agency you have the option to just bugger off whenever..

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Hi and thanks in advance to any responses!

 

My partner has been employed by an agency in Bristol on a temp basis, the wages were described as follows £7.04 PH inc. Holiday Pay, which equates to: £6.50 PH without the holiday pay, are they allowed to do this? whats more annoying is that any overtime is paid at the lower rate of £6.50 as there is no entitlement to holiday pay with regards to overtime as it has already been paid!

 

Yours in anticipation!!

 

Worked out basically - 37 x .54 = 19.98

19.98 X48 = 959.04

959.04/6.50 = 147 hours

 

So if he works 48 weeks and takes 4 off he is getting holiday pay at full rate, but paid in advance. If he doesn't taken any unpaid time off then he is getting he hourly rate of £7.04.

Usually agencies bank the money for you o nyour wage slip and pay it when you take your holiday.

Consumer Health Forums - where you can discuss any health or relationship matters.

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Guest Alison82
It depends on how they show the figure.

 

At my old agency, we only showed the staff what the were earning i.e. after we had taken off the agency fee paid by the client. Some do it a different way - show the total fee and then deduct their fee. If you PM me her payslip or the details that are on it, I'll have a look for you.

 

So agencys do take a cut off of your money they just show it in diffrent ways??!! I thought they would get their money from the main employer not the employee, so how much is the standard amount they would take off hourly? say i earn £10.50 an hour should it really be something like £15.50 if the agency didn't take their cut?!

 

(Sorry can't send her details as she is a friend of a friend)

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So agencys do take a cut off of your money they just show it in diffrent ways??!! I thought they would get their money from the main employer not the employee, so how much is the standard amount they would take off hourly? say i earn £10.50 an hour should it really be something like £15.50 if the agency didn't take their cut?!

 

(Sorry can't send her details as she is a friend of a friend)

 

They charge the employer an hourly rate and they pay you an agreed hourly rate. They don'ttake anything from your agreed hourly rate.

Consumer Health Forums - where you can discuss any health or relationship matters.

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The contract between the company who uses the agency will be at an agreed rate and the contract between the temp agency and the employee will be at an agreed rate. The difference is their "profit" although i can tell you not a lot are profitable nowadays.

All help is merely my opinion only - please seek legal advice if you need to as I am only qualified in SEN law.

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The contract between the company who uses the agency will be at an agreed rate and the contract between the temp agency and the employee will be at an agreed rate. The difference is their "profit" although i can tell you not a lot are profitable nowadays.

 

The agency i work for pays me for example £7 per hour and invoices the employer for around £15 per hour - sounds VERY profitable to me! I suppose it depends on the agency.

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Is your friend's agency a member of the REC (the agency regulatory body)?

I also concur with lbl post 3 re holiday pay.

Agencies dont make masses of profit after their fixed costs. The reputable ones strive hard to provide quality service to both their clients and candidates.

Regards

Sue

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I've dealt with agencies for a number of years, believe me they make a fortune (although they say they don't), that's why there are so many about.

 

I've employed people through an agency they generally charge companies twice the amount the employee gets paid, I've seen the invoices from them. Personally I'd sooner pay people through the books properly, it's chaeper and you can afford to be a little more generous with the wages and still save money, but the accountants like "profit per employee", obviously agency people aren't on the books as permanent staff, but cost much more.

 

Crazy!

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  • 2 years later...

Sorry to resurrect this thread after all this time but I am temping and was told I would earn £7.50 and hour but in fact it is £6.70 and the rest is holiday pay and I get nothing if I take holiday.

 

I told the agency it is not legal but they argued it is. I am only temping there for a month more and then being taken on by the company I work at but should I complain?

 

I feel I have been cheated and the guy more or less told me if i wanted more money I would lose my job!

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Sorry to resurrect this thread after all this time but I am temping and was told I would earn £7.50 and hour but in fact it is £6.70 and the rest is holiday pay and I get nothing if I take holiday.

 

I told the agency it is not legal but they argued it is. I am only temping there for a month more and then being taken on by the company I work at but should I complain?

 

I feel I have been cheated and the guy more or less told me if i wanted more money I would lose my job!

 

report them to the appropriate authorities - I believe it is against the law to do that, also tell the company you work for - they may get the pay owed for you and your lawful holiday entitlements back off the company, since as a client they have a lot of clout, or they may not use that agency anymore.

 

I think the reason it was made illegal was to do with bypassing the minimum wage and things like that. If you signed a contract for £7.50 then £7.50 is what you should have been paid, minus tax and NI, and then when you left if you had not taken them, 2 days holiday.

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  • 5 months later...

A friend of mine is being paid £6.00 per hour - His payslip shows part his earnings to be 'holiday pay', i.e. 40 hours @ £6.00 - £240.00 - £20.00 of which is holiday pay. If that is deducted from his basic then he is only earning £5.50, less than the minimum wage. Is this legal ?

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  • 3 months later...

XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX you need to see IBI's link and advice at the top of this thread the link and advice are sound.

 

The idea for temps is that your hourly rate is your hourly rate and over 12 months you are entitled to 4 weeks paid leave but only if you a. take leave or b. have leave left over at the end of your assignment. Agencies should not be advertising hourly rates as inc of holiday, it is NOT legal and those dim so called 'consultants' need to get with the programme.

 

Don't let the agencies mess you about, this is the law. I disagree with the post above...there are no good agencies or so called 'consultants' only bad ones and really bad ones. Sending CV's and setting up meetings isn't very difficult and just because they make lots of cash they think they are clever.....they can only make that cash when people like us do the work for them though so make sure you get what you are entitled to.

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