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    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
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      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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How do I unregister my car?


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does anyone know of a way to unregister a car with the DVLA without claiming to have scraped it?

"... all legal obligations arose from FREE CHOICE - which, if it was not expressed, must then be implied"

 

P.S. Atiyah, Rise and Fall of Freedom of Contract

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Export it or scrap it. The whole idea of continuous registration is that a car can't be "lost" from the database as long as it exists in the UK.

:!:Nothing I post should be taken as legal advice. It is offered as an opinion only.:!:

 

This warning is in my signature because I'm not organised enough to remember to type

it in every post.

 

And you're considering trusting me????:eek:

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if i return the reg document declaring it scrapped, is there an obligation to actually scrap it or can it be claimed as salvage?

"... all legal obligations arose from FREE CHOICE - which, if it was not expressed, must then be implied"

 

P.S. Atiyah, Rise and Fall of Freedom of Contract

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If you declare scrapped they will never issue another registration document for it, so you can never put it back on the road.

 

Overseas posting by any chance? ;)

Edited by Spunkymonkey
speeling again

:!:Nothing I post should be taken as legal advice. It is offered as an opinion only.:!:

 

This warning is in my signature because I'm not organised enough to remember to type

it in every post.

 

And you're considering trusting me????:eek:

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If you "self scrap" they will require proof that it has been scrapped or dismantled. You'll have to ask them what the minimum actions required would then have to be done to satisfy them. One famous story was a guy who sent them a video of the car being crushed by a tank.

 

You may want to keep the bits of the car for future projects, so it is understandable that you may not want to destroy the vehicle.

 

Exporting the vehicle is the only other way I know.

 

When you report a car stolen, the DVLA get notified, and they (should) ammend the vehicles register to remove your responsibility to it. But it remains on the register. You can and should - protect yourself by writing to DVLA to have them "remove your interest" in a vehicle that has been stolen. Which makes me wonder if you can legally "remove your interest" in a vehicle not stolen but remains in your possession, I suppose you theoretically can, but it would probably leave you open to prosecution under VERA for keeping an unregistered vehicle.

 

There is something in law about a vehicle without gear box or with engine in such a state that no prospect of vehicle being made mobile (and no intention of owner to put it back on the road) is no longer a motor vehicle.

Smart v Allan 1962

 

Which could help you.

Edited by Wig
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If you "self scrap" they will require proof that it has been scrapped or dismantled. You'll have to ask them what the minimum actions required would then have to be done to satisfy them. One famous story was a guy who sent them a video of the car being crushed by a tank.

 

You may want to keep the bits of the car for future projects, so it is understandable that you may not want to destroy the vehicle.

 

Exporting the vehicle is the only other way I know.

 

When you report a car stolen, the DVLA get notified, and they (should) ammend the vehicles register to remove your responsibility to it. But it remains on the register. You can and should - protect yourself by writing to DVLA to have them "remove your interest" in a vehicle that has been stolen. Which makes me wonder if you can legally "remove your interest" in a vehicle not stolen but remains in your possession, I suppose you theoretically can, but it would probably leave you open to prosecution under VERA for keeping an unregistered vehicle.

 

There is something in law about a vehicle without gear box or with engine in such a state that no prospect of vehicle being made mobile (and no intention of owner to put it back on the road) is no longer a motor vehicle.

 

Which could help you.

 

what im trying to do is remove their interest from my car without trying to create an estoppel.

 

when you register anything, you hand over what ever it is to another party. this is why if your car is found on the road without licence duty then the dvla can tow it away and scrap it. in reality dvla own your car with your consent.

"... all legal obligations arose from FREE CHOICE - which, if it was not expressed, must then be implied"

 

P.S. Atiyah, Rise and Fall of Freedom of Contract

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I think you're trying to do what in the USA some people theoretically think, that because they are constitutionally allowed the right to free travel, that right overrides the laws that require them to register their motor vehicles.

 

We in the UK have the same laws requiring all motor vehicles (which are not exempt) to be registered. We don't have a constitution to give us the same theoretical hopes that they have in the USA. I'll bet you won't actually find any Americans who go through with this idea.

 

Unless you remove the engine and have an intention to never use the vehicle on the road again, you will not be allowed to unregister the vehicle.

 

Just out of interest

There are vehicles that are exempt from continuous registration, vehicles which have been stored off road - untaxed, prior to the SORN laws coming into effect (something like 1995) are exempt from SORN regs & fines, unless they subsequently become taxed - or voluntarily SORN'd again, then they have to from that point on be subject to SORN regs.

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Statute law applies to PERSONS.

 

Statute laws regarding 'motor vehicles' applies to 'motor vehicles'.

 

The questions that you need to know the answers to according to law are:

 

1. who or what is a PERSON?

 

2. What is a 'motor vehicle'?

 

if i describe 'cherries' as round red fruits, does that mean all round red fruits are 'cherries'?

"... all legal obligations arose from FREE CHOICE - which, if it was not expressed, must then be implied"

 

P.S. Atiyah, Rise and Fall of Freedom of Contract

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I think he is trying to unregister his car so that he thinks then he wont have to tax it to run it on a road.

 

I suspect he has been taking lessons in law and thinks he has found a loophole to exploit

 

 

Thanks for that flyingdoc. A none starter I guess then! :D

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i dont THINKi wont have to pay 'vehicle licence duty', i KNOW i wont have to.

 

there are foreigners who have been here in england for years who have driven their cars without ever registering them, who have to pay no vehicle licence duty.

 

the dvla says that after 6 months they MUST register their car with them. in legalese, the word 'must' is equivilant to the word 'may', and there is no obligation to do anything in which you 'must' make application for.

 

every englishman has a lawful right to travel freely on the queen's highways. you have the right to own and use a private conveyance on the roads as long as you are not acting in commerce.

 

a driver is someone who acts in commerce; a vehicle is a conveyance used in commerce; a passenger is someone who pays. anyone acting in commerce has to register their vehicle and pay duty on it and apply for a licence to drive the vehicle.

 

did you claim to be acting in commerce? by making an application for vehicle registration, driver's licence etc, just like i did, you did claim that.

 

hence the reason why i want to unregister because i am not acting in commerce.

"... all legal obligations arose from FREE CHOICE - which, if it was not expressed, must then be implied"

 

P.S. Atiyah, Rise and Fall of Freedom of Contract

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Thanks for that flyingdoc. A none starter I guess then! :D

 

thats a cracker. it must be the way you tell them :D

 

seriously though, if YOU believe it to be a non starter, then so be it for YOU.

"... all legal obligations arose from FREE CHOICE - which, if it was not expressed, must then be implied"

 

P.S. Atiyah, Rise and Fall of Freedom of Contract

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Good luck with that....

 

and interestingly the Northamptonshir police are cracking down on just the drivers you are talking about - see http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/general-consumer-issues-media/175739-checks-target-foreign-vehicles.html

 

however I would be interested to know what statutes you are relying upon

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Good luck with that....

 

and interestingly the Northamptonshir police are cracking down on just the drivers you are talking about - see http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/general-consumer-issues-media/175739-checks-target-foreign-vehicles.html

 

however I would be interested to know what statutes you are relying upon

 

Officers can seize vehicles if they have been in the UK for longer than six months and are not registered with the DVLA, Pc David Lee said.

"After that period it must be taxed, insured and go through an MOT if it is older than three years," he said.

 

officers who seize privately owned cars are acting unlawfully. what they will try to do is get the owners to consent to statute law, which if the owners do, will mean they will have to go down the route of registration, licences etc. if the owners fail to consent, the police will have no choice but to give the cars back.

 

if they ever tried to take my private car, i'd sue them. but i would inform the police and the dvla from the start what the status of my car is and myself in regard to it, so that there would be no problems.

"... all legal obligations arose from FREE CHOICE - which, if it was not expressed, must then be implied"

 

P.S. Atiyah, Rise and Fall of Freedom of Contract

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I personally think that the polices power to seize vehicles at roadside are in contravention of the human rights act - right to a fair trial, and would love to see someone take this on.

As a law student i would be very interested in your arguement for your point of view - what statutes are you demending on?

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I personally think that the polices power to seize vehicles at roadside are in contravention of the human rights act - right to a fair trial, and would love to see someone take this on.

As a law student i would be very interested in your arguement for your point of view - what statutes are you demending on?

 

the police can seize vehicles because the vehicles were registered. the dvla have rights to that vehicle because of registration, and the owner gave the dvla those rights by applying and subbmiting volunterily, although the owner believing he was obligated to do so at the time on the basis of hearsay or someone in 'authority' saying that he 'must'.

 

i'm not using any statute, i'm using the common law. statute law overides common only when you consent to it, in other words its a contract, which is the reason why the police will ask you if you 'understand'. so i have to be particular about if and when i use statutes.

 

edited to add: everything the policeman said was true in the quote. imo, this article is being used as propaganda to intimidate people into applying for vehicle registration. the police could seize a private car, but they will know they are running a huge risk in doing so.

"... all legal obligations arose from FREE CHOICE - which, if it was not expressed, must then be implied"

 

P.S. Atiyah, Rise and Fall of Freedom of Contract

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Sorry but I have to say that is complete an utter rubbish. Statute law is just that - its law and it applies to you whether you consent or not.

 

a statute is a legisaltive rule of society which is empowered by law.

 

a society is a group of people joined together by mutual consent to deliberate, determine and act for a common goal.

 

do you belong to 'society'? do you know the name of that 'society'? were you obligated to join that 'society'? are you free to leave that 'society'?

 

statutes act on the PERSON. a PERSON is a legal fiction, a coporate entity. do you believe yourself to be a PERSON or a Human? do you have an obligation to act on behalf of the PERSON?

 

why does the policman ask you 'do you understand?'. why does he need evidence of the PERSON?

 

why does the customs officer ask for your permission to search through your luggage at the airport, to take swobs, to smash items if they believe it to be concealing drugs? if it was the law and mandatory there would be no reason to ask.

"... all legal obligations arose from FREE CHOICE - which, if it was not expressed, must then be implied"

 

P.S. Atiyah, Rise and Fall of Freedom of Contract

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Ah I was misunderstanding - I thought we were talking about reality not exostentialism.

 

A Person is not a legal fiction - there is a tried and tested definition of what is termed a Legal or Natural Person (legal person may be a company) and statutes apply to them whether or not they consider themselves to be part of the society.

 

I am all for challenging the system, for fighting for and championing the ever diminishing bundle of rights that the individual has, but pardon me for saying that your mantra actually makes no sense, and is of no real value in such a forum as this.

 

You cannot challenge the system from without as you appear to be attempting. How, for instance, are you going to get a court to uphold your claim- when part of your claim is that the very statutes that the court relies on for its authority are fictions.

 

whilst these debates are interesting and entertaining, most people come here for hard, factual and reliable advice. not philosophy.

 

oh an by the way - by CHOOSING to live in the UK you are CHOOSING to be part of the society and therefore bound by the laws of the country.

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Ah I was misunderstanding - I thought we were talking about reality not exostentialism.

 

interesting that i keep witnessing this exostentialism in reality because they keep asking for my consent.

 

A Person is not a legal fiction - there is a tried and tested definition of what is termed a Legal or Natural Person (legal person may be a company) and statutes apply to them whether or not they consider themselves to be part of the society.
a PERSON is not a Human, its not anything that exits except on paper. thats fiction.

 

but pardon me for saying that your mantra actually makes no sense, and is of no real value in such a forum as this.
pardon me, but was it not you who took the thread off topic by asking me WHY i was doing this?

 

How, for instance, are you going to get a court to uphold your claim- when part of your claim is that the very statutes that the court relies on for its authority are fictions.
the statute needs to be consented to. if there is no consent how can it possibly be enforced? the court's authority doesnt come from statute, it comes from common law and the soveriegn.

 

oh an by the way - by CHOOSING to live in the UK you are CHOOSING to be part of the society and therefore bound by the laws of the country.
ANYONE choosing to live in the England comes under the law and customs of england as sworn to by the soveriegn... anything else, they contract to. statutes are not laws, that are really coporation rules empowered by law through consent. its starts off as a BILL and then becomes a statutory INSTRUMENT. its commerce!

 

whilst these debates are interesting and entertaining, most people come here for hard, factual and reliable advice. not philosophy.
again, you took the thread off topic asking me why. and if it were all so easliy rubbished as nonsense why havent you answered any of the questions i raised on consent? do you believe those in 'authority' ask you out politeness? lol imo, the reason why you dont address this is because you cant. you have belief system to defend and you prefer to keep that intact than realise gravity of what it all means. thats your philosophy, and good luck to you with it.

 

you cannot beat a system in which you empower it by your consent.

"... all legal obligations arose from FREE CHOICE - which, if it was not expressed, must then be implied"

 

P.S. Atiyah, Rise and Fall of Freedom of Contract

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A police officer asks if a person understands because courts have accepted that the wording of the caution is understood by most people, but also accepts that there may be some who need to have the meaning explained in a different way, therefor they are asked 'do you understand'.

 

In the case of the customs officers, they can have the authority to search, but asking is just being polite and it is a lot easier to do things with consent . If the person refuses they can search anyway.

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its starts off as a BILL and then becomes a statutory INSTRUMENT.

 

it starts of as a bill and becomes an act of parliament... and acts of parliament are laws and laws are enforceable with or without your consent.

 

Yes there are times when authorities ask for, and require consent, but there are, equally times when consent is not required or asked and no amount of protestation that you do not consent will prevent that law being enforced upon you.

 

statutes are not laws,

 

plain and simple - but 100% wrong....

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