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    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
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      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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Off credit record but not time barred?


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Hi all,

 

I received a letter from Capquest saying they'd purchased an old unsecured personal loan debt from the original creditor.

 

Having checked my credit report, there is no mention of the debt. I do remember defaulting on the loan at the beginning of '01 so presumably the default record disappeared from my credit report after 6 years.

 

However, I'm sure I was in contact with a DCA about this during '02. I'll need to go through my records in detail but I probably did make some repayments until contact died off at the end of '02.

 

So I guess it's unlikely I can plead time-barred on this? But my main question, if my credit record no longer mentions this default do I have to settle with the DCA? Can they resubmit the information on my credit record? Or should I just approach it by asking for the CCA?

 

This is the first contact I've had with Capquest, is it likely that they'll have all the records associated with this debt? As my previous contact regarding this was with a different DCA back in '02. So potentially I could go for time-barred based on the date recorded on my credit report?

 

What if they come up with acceptable info in answer to the CCA, do I then have to acknowledge it or can I still attempt the time-barred route?!

 

Thanks in advance for your help; this site was a great find today!

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They probably haven't anything on this alleged debt. It will be a bulk purchase of some sort. If you paid something in 2002 i doubt if you could go down the Statute Barred route, and they may re-register any default. Check your credit record in the comng weeks.

 

The best thing is to CCA them first, sit back, and see what they come up with.

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You can only lawfully have a default placed an account once.

 

But I agree send them the CCA request. Are you in England/Wales or Scotland?

  • Haha 1

HAVE YOU BEEN TREATED UNFAIRLY BY CREDITORS OR DCA's?

 

BEWARE OF CLAIMS MANAGEMENT COMPANIES OFFERING TO WRITE OFF YOUR DEBTS.

 

 

Please note opinions given by rory32 are offered informally as a lay-person in good faith based on personal experience. For legal advice, you must always consult a registered and insured lawyer.

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Remember, this debt could be stat barred.

If you have NOT acknowledged it, in writing or payment, in over 6 years the it will be.

Any telephone conversations concerning it don't count.

 

Now I'd be inclined to send Capquest a stat barred letter available here: http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/general-debt/20758-creditors-dcas-letter-templates.html

letter M.

This will put the ball firmly in Capquests court and make them prove otherwise.

Be VERY careful whose advice you listen too

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  • 2 months later...

Hi guys

 

An update from August.

 

I CCA'd Capquest on 15 Aug 07. They responded on 23 Aug with an unbranded letter claiming to be proof that the original creditor had signed the debt over to them. It was clearly not proof of anything, so I responded as such on 30 Aug with a copy of my CCA request.

 

I heard nothing more from them until today! A letter dated 18 Oct 07 enclosing a copy of my original credit agreement and a statement of account. There is no deed of assignment from the original creditor to Capquest, but the credit agreement looks genuine - it's a copy of my personal loan agreement, with loan details including repayments and apr details, plus my signature.

 

Is this still valid even though they've clearly responded outside of the 12+month timescale?

 

The statement of acount shows my last payment as being Aug 02, so I can't go for time barred. But am I clutching at straws now to respond that they've still not provided a deed of assignment, plus they're already in breach of the 12+month timescale.

 

Thanks again for your help guys.

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Can you scan a copy for us to validate for you.

There's certain things that MUST be present for the agreement to be enforceable.

 

 

S61(1)(a) CCA provides that, for a regulated agreement to be properly executed, it must contain all the prescribed terms of the agreement and conform to regulations under s60(1) – see Q1.14.

 

Reg 6(1) provides that the terms specified in Sch 6 to the Agreements Regulations are ‘prescribed terms’ for the purposes of s61(1)(a) and s127(3) – see Q8.2.

 

8.2 What if prescribed terms are missing or incorrect?

 

s127(3) provides that the court may not make an enforcement order unless a document containing all the prescribed terms of the agreement was signed by the debtor – see Q1.21.

 

If therefore any of the prescribed terms is missing, or incorrect, the agreement is not enforceable against the debtor, and the court is precluded from making an enforcement order.

 

 

8.3 What are the prescribed terms?

 

The prescribed terms specified in Sch 6 are as follows:

 

* amount of credit – see Q8.

 

* credit limit – see Q8.5

* repayments – see Q8.9.

* rate of interest – see Q8.6

 

Sch 6 was not amended by the 2004 Regulations.

 

 

Also check out Peter Bard's excellent thread on the subject: http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/general/103383-agreement-enforceability.html

Be VERY careful whose advice you listen too

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try again.

 

It's a personal loan and mentions a credit agreement, the loan amount and repayments with apr. It is also signed and dated. That's all the requirements for a personal loan isn't it?

Capquest re Northern Rock.jpg

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Right then time for some action.

If you are happy this complies then get a S.A.R - (Subject Access Request) into the original creditor and go for the charges that will of been applied to this agreement.

 

Now for CapQuest here's a short and sweet letter:

 

 

ACCOUNT IN DISPUTE

 

Dear Sir/Madam,

 

Your ref:

 

 

Thank you for your letter of DATE, the contents of which are noted.

 

 

I am disputing the total value of these debts with BANK due to unlawful and unreasonable charges. As such, therefore, I consider this account to be in dispute and no further action shall be taken until this matter is resolved.

As per OFT guidelines Section 2.8k "not ceasing collection activity whilst investigating a reasonably queried or disputed debt."

 

This process may take some time, due to the Office of Fair Trading's test case, but I will try to expedite this issue as a matter of urgency.

 

I hope that you will enter into a sincere dialogue with me about this matter and I am writing this letter to you on the assumption that you would prefer to do this than merely respond with standard letters and leaflets.

 

I would appreciate your due diligence in this matter.

 

I look forward to hearing from you in writing.

 

Yours faithfully

At the end of the day you'd rather pay the OC the correct amount rather than some "nice" DCA ;)

Be VERY careful whose advice you listen too

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Sorry, the image was too small both times I tried it. How do I insert the image directly to the message?!

 

Anyway thanks again Curlyben, looks like I'll be going down the SAR route now.

 

But what about the 12days + 1month time limit before the DCA is committing an offence? Even if they have now provided the right info can I claim they're out of time?

 

And is it worth pursuing the no deed of assignment route, because strictly speaking they still haven't proved the debt is their's to chase.

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Thanks for the SAR advice Curlyben.

 

I'm trying again to insert the credit agreement Capquest sent me after the 12 days + one month timescale; this time in a word doc. Does this look like the right info?

 

Even if they have now provided the right info can I claim they're out of time?

 

And is it worth pursuing the no deed of assignment route, because strictly speaking they still haven't proved the debt is their's to chase.

 

Plus what does fair processing notice involve?!

 

Thanks again.

B

Capquest CCA.doc

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Bump!

 

Regarding receiving CCA info after the 12 days + one month timescale:

 

Even if they have now provided the right info can I claim they're out of time?

 

And is it worth pursuing the no deed of assignment route, because strictly speaking they still haven't proved the debt is their's to chase.

 

Plus what does fair processing notice involve?!

 

Thanks.

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Bear in mind the only information that MUST be supplied under a CCA is the agreement and a statement of account, anything else is optional.

 

** Deleted all the rest as I have posted it earlier **

Be VERY careful whose advice you listen too

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How were the payments made in '02?

 

Of they were via SO or DD, have you checked with your bank to ensure they are valid?

 

If you made them via another means the bank would need to prove the payments are in relation to you, it could be tricky for them to prove it. Remember that the Limitation Act puts the burden of proof on the creditor.

 

Get them to prove you made the payments, keep on disputing, make 'em work!

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Sometimes it has been suggested DCA's have credited an account in oredr to prevent it being statute barred - now really is the time to get those old bank statements out.

All help is merely my opinion only - please seek legal advice if you need to as I am only qualified in SEN law.

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Thanks guys.

 

I'll track down my old bank statements as any payments made would definitely not have been by DD or SO. Plus I'll also prepare an SAR response.

 

The only outstanding question I have now is what about the time limit of 12 days plus one month for a CCA request. What's the point in having a time limit, leading to them being in default, if they can then produce the info at a later time?

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Ok, 2 questions on my mind now!

 

What about the time limit of 12 days plus one month for a CCA request. What's the point in having a time limit, leading to them being in default, if they can then produce the info at a later time?

 

If I send my SAR to creditor and DCA will it reset the 6 year timescale as I must be fairly close to the time barred limit now?

 

Thanks again.

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1. Not entirely sure of the "point" but it as at this time that you can report them for non-compliance.

 

2. sending a SAR does not start the ball rolling again. You are basically asking for all information they hold on you - this is neither an acceptance or declination of the debt.

All help is merely my opinion only - please seek legal advice if you need to as I am only qualified in SEN law.

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Thanks Tiglet.

 

The DCA has responded with what seems like the correct info, but they did so 3 weeks after the 12 + 2 + one month timescale had elapsed. So technically they've committed a criminal offence. But if they've now produced the correct info are they no longer in default? Am I clutching at straws reporting them for non-compliance when they've produced the right info, albeit outside of the stipulated timescales?

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I always think it's worthwhile reporting them because it seems the only recourse we have.

All help is merely my opinion only - please seek legal advice if you need to as I am only qualified in SEN law.

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Another update:

 

I sent Curlyben's template 'account in dispute' letter to Capquest whilst I wait for a S.A.R - (Subject Access Request) response from the oc.

 

Capquest responded quickly with 'we can confirm upon signing your credit agreement, you will have agreed to all charges and interest on this account.'

 

The balance on the account statement they sent me with the CCA response matches the amount they're now claiming, but I'm still going down the SAR route to the oc because I genuinely question the authenticity of these figures.

 

Any suggestions how I should respond, if at all, to Capquest?! Do they have to wait until the oc answers my SAR request? And in the info the oc send me is it likely they'll also confirm once and for all that they sold this debt to Capquest? If so, will the info include how much they sold it for?!!

 

Thanks again.

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