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    • Hi, I've been reading the invaluable advice on this forum and reading about the problems with Evri and lost delivery of items.  From what I gather the initial steps after having exhausted every's own lost item claim process is to draft a Letter of Claim, I think it is called and to register with the government Money Claims.  I have got a login for Money Claims and have made an initial stab at the letter but I'm not certain I have got it right. Am I right to assume that having exhausted Evri customer service's claims process and having received the denial of any compensation because the laptop I was sending is on the non-compensatory list that my next step would be to send the Letter of Claim to them? Let me provide some basic details which I hopefully have addressed in the letter. I purchased a laptop through Amazon.co.uk which a business in Belfast sold refurbished laptops through.  They had a 30 day money back guarantee for a full refund if you have any issues with the laptop.  I have the invoice from Amazon showing the purchase.  On 27 April, 2024 before the end of the 30 day period I used their ParcelShop (inside a Tesco) to send the laptop back and have the tracking reference mentioned in the letter.  As mentioned in the letter there was they advised they could not give me or sell me any insurance because laptops are on the non-compensatory list so I just paid the normal delivery cost.  It was scanned as leaving the ParcelShop on 29 April and the tracking has been like that ever since.  After a 28 working day Evri claim process they gave the expected response that they could not provide any compensation and simply could not proceed with my claim. I was hoping to get some advice on whether I go ahead now and email this to Customer Services straightaway and should I send a hard-copy to the Evri address as well?  Or are there any steps I have missed out on first?  I believe 14 days is the reasonable period of time for them to respond so if I were to send it tomorrow, for example 12 June then I should expect a reply by 26 June, is that correct and fair?  And assuming they don't reply with a full refund then I would then go down the government Money Claims site to proceed with that? Sorry for all the questions, I want to make sure I go about it properly.  I'll continue to read through other cases on here so I can get an even better handle on the process. I attached a LOC, happy for any edits or updates that will make it even better. Thanks so much for anyone's help! Regards, Matt Evri letter of claim.docx
    • The date was 3 June. Get on MCOL now. The legal principle is that, even if you defence is late, if the other party hasn't requested judgement, then your defence takes priority and is accepted. You might be in time. When I say now I mean now.  Recently we had someone who was nine days' late and this was pointed out to them at 5:30pm.  They faffed around till 11pm.  When they went on MCOl they saw that judgement had been entered at 7pm. Every minute is vital. File the below standard defence if you still can - 1.  The Defendant is the recorded keeper of [motor vehicle]. 2.  It is denied that the Defendant entered into a contract with the Claimant. 3.  As held by the Upper Tax Tribunal in Vehicle Control Services Limited v HMRC [2012] UKUT 129 (TCC), any contract requires offer and acceptance.  The Claimant was simply contracted by the landowner to provide car-park management services and is not capable of entering into a contract with the Defendant on its own account, as the car park is owned by and the terms of entry set by the landowner.  Accordingly, it is denied that the Claimant has authority to bring this claim.    4.  In any case it is denied that the Defendant broke the terms of a contract with the Claimant. 5.  The Claimant is attempting double recovery by adding an additional sum not included in the original offer.  6.  The Particulars of Claim is denied in its entirety.  It is denied that the Claimant is entitled to the relief claimed or any relief at all.
    • Hi friends,  I’m a bit worried I may have got confused with timings here. I thought I had 33 days from my acknowledgment to submit a defence but the date added above says 3/6/24.   have I missed the date?   if so how can I apply for an exception due to my disability and problems with deadlines and dates etc (ADHD)?   what should I submit as a defence?   I’ve had no reply from BW so far    just been back on MCOL and it says 28 days from service if I completed an acknowledgment of service so does that mean 28 days from that of acknowledgement (I.e. 16/5) which would make deadline for defence 14/6?   Thanks! Panicking here.
    • Normally we don't advise playing your cards early in a snotty letter, but as you have appealed we might as well use what you wrote in the appeal against them. There is no rush, you have until 6 July to get it to them.  See what the other regulars think too. How about something like this? -   Dear Rachael & Sean, cheers for your Letter of Claim.  I rolled around on the floor in laughter at the idea you'd actually thought I'd take such tripe seriously and would cough up! As usual you'll have been too bone idle to do any due diligence.  Had you done so you would have seen that I appealed to your client.  Indeed the driver on the day is a textbook example of having done exactly what you should do when you do not wish to be bound by the T&Cs in a private car park. Of course none of that mattered to the spivs you represent but do you really want to put such a useless case in front of a judge? To be fair, your clients are very useful members of the human race - as comedians.  How I loved the page turner of their antics at The Citrus Building in Bournemouth.  It was chuckle after chuckle reading about them, letter after letter, month after month, insisting they were legally in the right, even through someone who had done just the first day of a GCSE law course could have told them they weren't.  Until the denouement - BOOM - an absolute hammering in court.  In fact - SLAM, BANG - managing to lose twice against the same motorist for the same car park in front of two different judges. Your client can either drop their foolishness now or get yet another tolchocking* in court where I will go for an unreasonable costs order under CPR 27.14(2)(g) and spend the dosh on a nice summer holiday, while every day laughing at your clients' expense. I look forward to your deafening silence. COPIED TO COUNTRYWIDE PARKING MANAGEMENT LTD   *  This word is used under licence from Brassnecked
    • Well yes, ... and the tax dodgers ... Trump May Owe $100 Million From Double-Dip Tax Breaks, Audit Shows A previously unknown focus of an I.R.S. audit is a dubious accounting maneuver that effectively meant taking the same write-offs twice on a Chicago skyscraper. nytimes.com WWW.NYTIMES.COM  
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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

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      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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Cap1 & CCA return


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Zubo, i can't see why not. If therre is is no Agreement, how can it be enfoceable. As good as CCCS is, they do not know about this. There is nothing to lose at this stage. It could lower the money to be repaid under the DMP and might make the other creidtors make sure they have crossed all the T's and dotted the i's. Talk to the CCCS counsellor about this and let him/her know that there is a possiblilty of an uneforceable debt.

 

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Guest willowb
accepting the risk that a creditor can pull a fully executed agreement out of the bag 3 months or more after the 12 days and get a court permission to exercise his rights -

:confused:

 

Wxxx

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Zubo

 

If the creditor finds the agreement he does not need leave of the court to enforce the debt. He clears the default by presenting a copy of the agreement to your fellow CAGer and is then free to enforce the debt through court action if he so chooses.

 

These actions can happen simultaneously, i.e. he clears the default by ensuring he presents the agreement in his court bundle. The fact an offence has been commited is of no concern to the Judge, as Laiste found out yesterday.

 

Once in court three things concern the Judge...

 

1) Is there a valid agreement

2) Has it been breached

3) Is the claimant entitled to enforce

 

Whiile the request for a copy of the agreement is outstanding the debt is legitimately in dispute. However, if I were in a position to continue my DMP payments I would, unless I had good grounds to genuinely believe I didn't owe any money (e.g. charges outweighing debt). By stopping payments the creditor will be hacked off and will be less disposed to any gestures of goodwill. JMHO

 

Regards

 

 

Lantana

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Erm, section 77/8 isn't just about the agreement is it, there are other elements. Until these are met there is no compliance with s77/8. Make sure that is there in the court bundle, or they haven't complied and are attempting to enforce whilst not complying.

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I have another question....

 

If I sign an application form, and the application form is then signed by a shop assistant, the executed agreement then is theoretically valid. If that application for credit is then turned down when it is processed, where does that leave the application? It cannot be an executed agreement. The application form in question is for a store card (some of you have seen it), and there is an amount of 'instant credit'. If that is so, the executed signature is only covering the instant credit portion, as if the application is denied, how can the agreement have been executed?

 

Also, the missing parts of the application will have the 'office use only' portions, which will state as and when the application is affected. As it stands, the application form does not even purport to state when the agreement starts. Here is a quote:

 

"In the event that instant credit is granted this agreement shall permit you to draw on credit up to the instant credit limit notified to you only at the time of such notification. If you draw on credit at that time you will be bound by the terms of this agreement as far as they are applicable and your right to cancel referred to in the box below will not apply to this agreement. In the event that instant credit is granted we reserve the right subsequently to refuse to issue you with a card. If you do receive a card from us this agreement shall continue from the date shown on your card carrier."

 

The points are:

 

The 'agreement' supplied does not state the start date of the agreement. Between the date signed and the date the card is issued, this agreement cannot be drawn upon, during which time there isn't an agreement. If I cannot draw on it by whatever means, there isn't a credit agreement other than paying for the instant credit. The whole 'instant credit' seems dodgy and is only used as a sales technique. i.e. 'Apply for a card today and you can get X% off your purchases'.

 

There has got to be something that states the issue of a credit token in a credit token agreement is a foregone conclusion and that in an executed credit-token agreement, the agreement cannot be executed until the credit token is agreed?

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I'm reading sections 57 at the moment 'withdrawl from prospective agreement'.

 

57 Withdrawal from prospective agreement

 

(1) The withdrawal of a party from a prospective regulated agreement shall operate to apply this Part to the agreement, any linked transaction and any other thing done in anticipation of the making of the agreement as it would apply if the agreement were made and then cancelled under section 69.

 

(2) The giving to a party of a written or oral notice which, however expressed, indicates the intention of the other party to withdraw from a prospective regulated agreement operates as a withdrawal from it.

 

(3) Each of the following shall be deemed to be the agent of the creditor or owner for the purpose of receiving a notice under subsection (2)—

 

(a) a credit-broker or supplier who is the negotiator in antecedent negotiations, and

 

(b) any person who, in the course of a business carried on by him, acts on behalf of the debtor or hirer in any negotiations for the agreement.

 

 

(4) Where the agreement, if made, would not be a cancellable agreement, subsection (1) shall nevertheless apply as if the contrary were the case.

 

It would seem I can sign the agreement, under subsection 4 and then subsection 1, they cannot state the agreement is not cancellable, as the issue of instant credit is carried out prior to signing ( I choose clothes, they offer a discount on the purchase if I apply for AN EVANS CARD), therefore irrespective of whether or not the agreement is signed, a cancellable agreement cannot be made uncancellable just because the offer of instant credit is taken.

 

Lets not forget here the application is for an EVANS CARD, as stated in their bumpfh and by the sales assistant.

 

Hmm, it seemed to make more sense in my head. Any takers?

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I read subsection (1) to say that if a party withdraws from the prospective agreement (ie withdrawal occurs before the agreement is executed), then the same happens as defined in the terms of S69 (which are the terms for cancellation of a cancellable agreement after it is executed). Subsection (4) then says subsection (1) applies in the event of a withdrawal even if the agreement is not cancellable. Sort of a belt and braces approach to prevent someone arguing that as it is not a cancellable agreement some other approach should be used to unwind what has already happened. Does that make sense?

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The issue here is that the agreement is executed in the shop, before credit checks are taken. The sales assistant signs the agreement and then it is sent off for processing. If the application for a card is successful, they issue the card and the agreement starts from the date on the card carrier. If the application for a card is declined and no instant credit is supplied, the agreement is already executed and so GE Capital must surely be bound to provide empty statements from that point on.

 

What I'm getting to here is that the agreement doesn't exist until there is a decision to supply the card, and the 'agreement' does not contain the date the card is issued ('the agreement continues from that date') and so the reverse of this is that the agreement would be terminated if the card is not issued. Therefore the agreement never actually existed until the card is issued. There is no mechanism to charge monies to the account without the card, therefore how can the account exist without the card?

 

Also, on the first page of the application it mentions Card, whereas on the part where the signatures are (different sized paper, without all of the prescribed items, obviously a part of a greater whole - so where is the rest of the whole?) it mentions account. I'm bemused and this is definitely misleading.

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I think the point you are making m55 is that you signed an 'invitation to treat' not an agreement.

 

Because the card issuer had yet to 'consider' your application it doesn't amount to a contractual offer by the card issuer and therefore your first signature cannot amount to acceptance.

 

Now IMHO there is no reason why an application form cannot become an executed agreement if it contains all the prescribed terms, but more learned CAGer's may be able to clarify this.

 

Also IMHO, accepting a form may be 'dual purpose' it must then require your second signature for execution by you (unless the CCA74 says different). Otherwise you're left open to acceptance of any 'offer' they see fit. I'm thinking out loud here.

 

Read about 'invitation to treat' here: Invitation to treat - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

 

 

Regards

 

 

Lantana

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Can I ask a stupid question? Does an executed agreement need to be signned by an authorised signatory of the creditor in order to be valid?

If by valid you meen enforceable an executed agreement without the creditors signature but with all the other prescribed terms can be enforced only by the order of the court.

 

Peter

DO NOT PAY UPFRONT FEES TO COLD CALLERS PROMISING TO WRITE OFF YOUR DEBTS

DO NOT PAY UPFRONT FEES FOR COSTLY TELEPHONE CONSULTATIONS WITH SO CALLED "EXPERTS" THEY INVARIABLY ARE NOTHING OF THE SORT

BEWARE OF QUICK FIX DEBT SOLUTIONS, IF IT LOOKS LIKE IT IS TO GOOD TO BE TRUE IT INVARIABLY IS

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I think the point you are making m55 is that you signed an 'invitation to treat' not an agreement.

 

Because the card issuer had yet to 'consider' your application it doesn't amount to a contractual offer by the card issuer and therefore your first signature cannot amount to acceptance.

 

Now IMHO there is no reason why an application form cannot become an executed agreement if it contains all the prescribed terms, but more learned CAGer's may be able to clarify this.

 

Also IMHO, accepting a form may be 'dual purpose' it must then require your second signature for execution by you (unless the CCA74 says different). Otherwise you're left open to acceptance of any 'offer' they see fit. I'm thinking out loud here.

 

Read about 'invitation to treat' here: Invitation to treat - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

 

 

Regards

 

 

Lantana

 

An application form cannot be used as an executed agreement . Appart from anything else it must be headed Credit Agreement regulated under***

Also a prospective agreement cannot be made and then sent to e credit scored.

 

Peter

DO NOT PAY UPFRONT FEES TO COLD CALLERS PROMISING TO WRITE OFF YOUR DEBTS

DO NOT PAY UPFRONT FEES FOR COSTLY TELEPHONE CONSULTATIONS WITH SO CALLED "EXPERTS" THEY INVARIABLY ARE NOTHING OF THE SORT

BEWARE OF QUICK FIX DEBT SOLUTIONS, IF IT LOOKS LIKE IT IS TO GOOD TO BE TRUE IT INVARIABLY IS

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Hello, a long time ago I used to work in House of Frazer, I used to get people to sign for these store cards, after filling in the details I would then telephone GE whoever, and they would say yes or no to the credit.

My point is do shops not do that now?

If it was declined, I had to write cancelled accross the whole sheet and hand 1 copy to customer.

But the forms had all the information on from what I can remember,

 

I have to add, I didn't know then what I know now.

Saxon

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An application form cannot be used as an executed agreement . Appart from anything else it must be headed Credit Agreement regulated under***

Also a prospective agreement cannot be made and then sent to e credit scored.

 

Peter

 

Peter

 

I thought if a document which contained all the correct prescribed terms would suffice as an agreement whether it be an application form or not.

 

Paul

An appeaser is one who feeds a crocodile, hoping it will eat him last. <br />

Winston Churchill

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Paul, I think the problem is the interaction with S59 which voids an agreement if it is a prospective regulated agreement. There has been some discussion about whether an application form is such a prospective regulated agreement and as such cannot be treated as a regulated agreement in itself.

 

Do you know, I so want to sign myself as Mary but then I am sad enough to know about Peter, Paul and Mary (and it wouldn't be my name either... just in case the MIB started looking)

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Hello, a long time ago I used to work in House of Frazer, I used to get people to sign for these store cards, after filling in the details I would then telephone GE whoever, and they would say yes or no to the credit.

My point is do shops not do that now?

If it was declined, I had to write cancelled accross the whole sheet and hand 1 copy to customer.

But the forms had all the information on from what I can remember,

 

I have to add, I didn't know then what I know now.

 

So, why would a card not subsequently be issued by GE? They reserve the right not to issue a card. I'm also interested in how you (as a store assistant) are allowed to execute the agreement? Your take / knowledge is invaluable and I'd like to get to the bottom of this (obviously).

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Term

 

When you get a chance, could you re-read the agreement I sent you. Look on the first page, all of the boxes have a number present, indicating stages that need to be undertaken, yet on the signature page, these numbers are not present ... smacks of it being different to me. Also, if you look on the front page, the authority code hasn't been filled in, indicating the sales assistant hasn't contacted GE for authorisation. Therefore, the sales assistant has basically executed an agreement that hasn't been authorised by GE!

 

The sig page is a quarter the size of the other page (erm, so where the heck is the rest of that page?) and the formatting is different. Is it from the same document? I don't think so.

 

I may have to win this by attrition, as I need to prove it is incorrectly executed before they will back down over s85 (IMO s85 requires a NON-EXECUTED agreement to be won (or before I'd feel comfortable arguing it)).

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So, why would a card not subsequently be issued by GE? They reserve the right not to issue a card. I'm also interested in how you (as a store assistant) are allowed to execute the agreement? Your take / knowledge is invaluable and I'd like to get to the bottom of this (obviously).

 

Hello, it was a House of Frazer store card, as an employee, I assume (probably wrongly) that I would have had the authority to do so.

However a telephone call had to verify whether or not credit could be given. An account number would then be given to me to put onto the form. I would then issue a temporary card, so the customer could use it there and then, in any part of the store.

Saxon

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Peter

 

I thought if a document which contained all the correct prescribed terms would suffice as an agreement whether it be an application form or not.

 

Paul

No it has to be in the correct form as well.

 

Peter

DO NOT PAY UPFRONT FEES TO COLD CALLERS PROMISING TO WRITE OFF YOUR DEBTS

DO NOT PAY UPFRONT FEES FOR COSTLY TELEPHONE CONSULTATIONS WITH SO CALLED "EXPERTS" THEY INVARIABLY ARE NOTHING OF THE SORT

BEWARE OF QUICK FIX DEBT SOLUTIONS, IF IT LOOKS LIKE IT IS TO GOOD TO BE TRUE IT INVARIABLY IS

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Hello, it was a House of Frazer store card, as an employee, I assume (probably wrongly) that I would have had the authority to do so.

However a telephone call had to verify whether or not credit could be given. An account number would then be given to me to put onto the form. I would then issue a temporary card, so the customer could use it there and then, in any part of the store.

 

That's kind of how I remember my Burtons Group card circa 97. But we're talking about a GE card circa 92. The account numbers are pre-printed on the stationary and there isn't a temporary card. There is space for sales code and authority code, both incomplete on this agreement. I'm thinking along the lines that as the sales assistant hasn't filled in these boxes, there is no guarantee / requirement for them to phone up for a credit search. Therefore, the agreement has been executed incorrectly. That's what I'm hoping.

 

This bit is bugging me now...

 

Each section (name, address, employment, bank details, cards held etc) has a number, yet on the signature sheet, these do not. The sheet headed 'Credit Agreement Regulated...' has all of the hand written details on it, is A4, the other (with the sigs) is A6 (roughly - about a third of a sheet of A4). The numbering of the boxes on the agreement page is missing, the sig page contains the interest rate bits, the statement about credit limits, the boxes on DP and your right to cancel, but doesn't state 'Credit Agreement Regulated ... ' and has absolutely nothing else (like a pre-printed account number, a name, an id or any other reference) to link it to the other sheet.

 

This sig page is completely alien and could be from anything.

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That's kind of how I remember my Burtons Group card circa 97. But we're talking about a GE card circa 92. The account numbers are pre-printed on the stationary and there isn't a temporary card. There is space for sales code and authority code, both incomplete on this agreement. I'm thinking along the lines that as the sales assistant hasn't filled in these boxes, there is no guarantee / requirement for them to phone up for a credit search. Therefore, the agreement has been executed incorrectly. That's what I'm hoping.

 

This bit is bugging me now...

 

Each section (name, address, employment, bank details, cards held etc) has a number, yet on the signature sheet, these do not. The sheet headed 'Credit Agreement Regulated...' has all of the hand written details on it, is A4, the other (with the sigs) is A6 (roughly - about a third of a sheet of A4). The numbering of the boxes on the agreement page is missing, the sig page contains the interest rate bits, the statement about credit limits, the boxes on DP and your right to cancel, but doesn't state 'Credit Agreement Regulated ... ' and has absolutely nothing else (like a pre-printed account number, a name, an id or any other reference) to link it to the other sheet.

 

This sig page is completely alien and could be from anything.

 

I worked there in 1999/2000, the forms were triplicate, I remember the pink top sheet was double sided, which went to the customer, but I had to put on the form how much credit limit was and their account / reference number, if the phone call said no the aggreement was written as cancelled staight across diagnally so there could be no mistake and again the customer got a copy, but that was one store.

 

I wasn't able to get an account, my history not good enough, so can't refer to a copy, sorry, and my memory isn't what it should be.

Saxon

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