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    • Hi all, Love this site and it's no nonsense advice, have dipped in and out of the consumer forums over the years, mostly to assure myself that what I was doing was the right thing when dealing with various businesses (almost 100% success rate, thanks in part to reading and more reading here.). Anyway, the time is almost approaching where I might need to ask for some specific help and I have a couple of queries that I can't see definitively answered. Due to financial mismanagement and severe anxiety issues I stopped paying all unsecured debt in December 2018 (one slipped to the first week in Jan 2019 when the last payment was made having rechecked my bank statement from that period - all my unsecured debt direct debits were cancelled in early Jan 2019). This has left half a dozen debts;  a couple of credit cards, a bank loan, Shop Direct and some Hitachi Finance stuff having been sold on and passing the rounds through the usual suspects, Lowells, Link, PRA Group, others related to them, and then back to them again. I have somehow successfully managed to maintain radio silence and avoided anything more worrying than their begging letters.  I have blocked their phone calls and texts, bumped all emails to the spambox and had a chuckle at their desperate letters.  I've never had anybody at the door.  I have been at the same address since before I defaulted and all correspondence comes to my current home address.  I have NEVER contacted them or admitted any debt. In anticipation of them perhaps ramping up action at the last minute I've had a look at my credit report on Credit Karma (rec'd from this very place) and I see that the default dates on these range from May 2019 to November 2019. Also in preperation I've been reading, reading and reading lots here as advised. Obviously being in Scotland there are a lot fewer posts relating to these matters and it's always quite annoying when OP's do not follow up with any outcome on their cases - how rude! This has also left me a bit confused of when I am able to finally breathe easy (although cancelling all the direct debits in Jan 2019 was the biggest sigh of relief as I knew it was all going to be unmanageable and, well, default one, default all.). I've been reading that defaults should be filed 3-6 months after the missed payment but one of my larger debts was defaulted on 27th August 2019 when the last payment I made was 10th December 2018, meaning the first missed payment was 10th Jan 2019.   My query for now is - when should I infer that these debts are prescribed?  From when the payment was missed, or taking the default date plus 5 years from the credit report? The three I have with the May date are moot anyway as either way they are gone  - some letters from Lowell offering me 90% off to settle is what got me thinking these must have been near SB status, however I have one big 10k+ with a July date and another 10k+ at the end of August I am feeling a bit anxious again, even though I know there is nothing to worry about with the begging letters.  Reading the various forums I am not sure why the OC's didn't take action against me when I read time and again the surprise that other posters haven't already been taken to court for lesser amounts - I'm also surprised I've avoided any action this long as there are plenty in this forum and sub forum who are whisked off to the court by the beggers minions after only a year or so after defaulting.  There are no CCJ/decrees listed on my credit report and I have not received any such judgements against me.  I still just regularly receive the begging emails to the spambox, the blocked phone calls and the letters from the they. I'm also reading that there is no need in Scotland to send an LBC so what should I be looking out for to know that the time has come to engage with CCA requests etc? I'm afraid in a fit I threw a lot of the paperwork out but I have a box of stuff I'm going to go through which may have the original letters from the OC's. Thanks in advance for any advice.  
    • I'm at work now but promise to look in later. Can you confirm how you paid the first invoice?  It wasn't your fault if the signal was so poor and there was no alternative way to pay.  There must be a chance of reversing the charge with your bank.  There are no guarantees but Kev  https://find-and-update.company-information.service.gov.uk/company/09766749/officers  has never had the backbone to do court so far.  Not even in one case,  
    • OK  so you may not have outed yourself if you said "we". No matter either way you paid. Snotty letter I am surprised that they were so quick off the mark threatening Court. They usually take months to go that far. No doubt that as you paid the first one they decided to strike quickly and scare you into paying. Dear Chuckleheads  aka Alliance,  I am replying to your LOCs You may have caught me the first time but that is  the end. What a nasty organisation you are. You do realise that you now have now no reason to continue to pursue me after reading my appeal since you know that my car was not cloned. Any further pursuit will end up with a complaint to the ICO that you are breaching my GDPR.  Please confirm that you have removed my details from your records. ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ I haven't gone for a snotty letter this time as they know that you paid for your car in another car park. So using a shot across their bows .  If it doesn't deter them and they send in the debt collectors or the Court you will then be able to get more money back from them for  breachi.ng your data protection than they will get should they win in Court-and they have no chance of that as you have paid. So go in with guns blazing and they might see sense.  Although never underestimate how stupid they are. Or greedy.
    • Thank you. Such a good point. They did issue all 3 before I paid though. I only paid one because I didn’t have proof of parking that time, only for two others.    Unfortunately no proof of my appeal as it was just submitted through a form on their website and no copy was sent to me. I only have the reply. I believe I just put something like “we made the honest mistake of using the incorrect parking area on the app” and that’s it. Thanks again for your help. 
    • They are absolute chuckleheads. You paid but because you entered a different car park site also belonging to them they are pursuing you despite them knowing what you had done. It would be very obvious to everyone, including Alliance that your car could not have been in two places at the same time. Thank you for posting the PCN so quickly making it a pity that you appealed since there are so many things wrong with it that you as keeper are not liable to pay the charge. They rarely accept appeals since that would mean they lose money but they have virtually no chance of beating you in Court. Very unlikely that they will take you to Court given the circumstances. Just in case you didn't out yourself as the driver could you please post up your appeal.
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What happens to ET claim when Respondent is "dissolved"?


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Hi

I would really appreciate the forums suggestion with this problem. I was made unemployed in a "sham" redundancy. Immediately, I filed an ET1 claim etc, etc. The Respondents response was to close the business and file with Company's House to be removed from the Companies Register - (obviously they thought that they had a strong case against me). I applied to Companies House to have the "dissolution" put on hold until after the Employment Tribunal case. But because of a error within Companies house, my second application was lost and Respondent was allowed to be removed from the Register of Companies. Now the Respondent has asked the Tribunal to have the case dismissed. Does anybody have any suggestions about what to do next?

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But because of a error within Companies house' date=' my second application was lost and Respondent was allowed to be removed from the Register of Companies.[/quote']

 

Is Companies House not legally accountable for act/s of negligence??

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Hi

 

Whilst it may preculude the ET claim if there is no-one to identify as a defenadand. You may be able to claim some monies from the national insurance fund. Different definitions of 'going bust' exist depending on the type or organisation your employer was:

 

 

  • if your employer is a company, or a limited liability partnership, insolvency means administration, liquidation, receivership, or a voluntary arrangement with creditors
  • if your employer is an individual, insolvency means bankruptcy (sequestration in Scotland) or a voluntary arrangement with creditors

The insolvency practitioner can be called by one of the following terms depending on the type of insolvency:

 

  • administrator
  • liquidator
  • receiver
  • supervisor (of voluntary arrangement)
  • trustee (in bankruptcy)

Your rights if your employer is insolvent : Directgov - Employment

 

Now provided you were an employee at the effective date that the employer officially went into administration, then you should have satisfied the legal definition of redundancylink3.gif.

 

Redundancy happens when the job ceases to exist s.139 ERA 1996.

 

The question is, during administration when does a job 'cease to exist'

 

It would be prudent to contact the NIF (as they will be the ones paying the award), and checking what criteria they apply as regards effective dates, get advice on completing RP1 etc

 

0845 145 0004

 

Hope this helps

 

Che

...................................................................... [FONT=Comic Sans MS]Please post on a thread before sending a PM. My opinion's are not expressed as agent or representative of The Consumer Action Group. Always seek professional advice from a qualified legal adviser before acting. If I have helped you please feel free to click on the black star.[/FONT] [FONT=Comic Sans MS] I am sorry that work means I don't get into the Employment Forum as often as I would like these days, but nonetheless I'll try to pop in when I can.[/FONT] [FONT=Arial Black][FONT=Comic Sans MS][COLOR=Red]'Venceremos' :wink:[/COLOR][/FONT][/FONT]

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On the other hand, according to the OP's post they were made redundant (allegedly a sham) and the employer dissolved thereafter. So the job ceased to exist before the employer dissolved, whether fairly or not. There is now no legal entity to act as the respondant, so whether the redundancy was fair or not is moot. Assuming that the OP was paid whatever redundancy payment was due (whiich I am, because they have not alleged that monies were not paid - just that the redundancy was a sham), then there is no monies owed. The OP was not an employee of the company when it went "bust" - because they have alreday stated that the company dissolved after the redundancy.

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On the other hand, according to the OP's post they were made redundant (allegedly a sham) and the employer dissolved thereafter. So the job ceased to exist before the employer dissolved,

 

Do not disagree, which is why I did say, "...provided you were an employee at the effective date that the employer officially went into administration." - which is indeed a point that may not apply here.

 

I suppose we need to ask Pennysdad what they were claiming in the ET - was it just UD or they alleging monies are owed?

 

Also there might be some mileage in a claim against Companies House if you can prove they were negligent and you have as a consequence suffered loss.

 

Think we need a bit more info Dad

 

Che

...................................................................... [FONT=Comic Sans MS]Please post on a thread before sending a PM. My opinion's are not expressed as agent or representative of The Consumer Action Group. Always seek professional advice from a qualified legal adviser before acting. If I have helped you please feel free to click on the black star.[/FONT] [FONT=Comic Sans MS] I am sorry that work means I don't get into the Employment Forum as often as I would like these days, but nonetheless I'll try to pop in when I can.[/FONT] [FONT=Arial Black][FONT=Comic Sans MS][COLOR=Red]'Venceremos' :wink:[/COLOR][/FONT][/FONT]

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I don't know if this is relevant guys, and it might be covered by Elche's link. I thought there was a government fund for redundancy if an employer went bust. Is that relevant here?

 

My best, HB

 

There is. But it does not seem that redundancy or other pay is the issue. The OP said that they had lodged a claim for a "sham redundancy (I assume unfair dismissal is the claim, but it isn't clear). So it would appear also that they have been made redundant but claim it wasn't a genuine redundancy. The employer dissolved AFTER this, and after the ET1 was lodged. So there is no longer a respondant to answer the claim.

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Hi Everybody

Thanks everybody for your input, to clarify the situation. The company was dissolved after I was made "redundant" and had filed my ET1 for unfair dismissal with the Employment Tribunal. I'm really interested to know if there are any precedents for a company being restored to the Register of Companies, because of a clear mistake at Companies House? Does anybody know???? Is this loophole being widely used to escape Employment Tribunals? If so how do we "close" it????

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I think your circumstance is rather unusual. Yes, companies often dissolve in order to avoid tribunals (although not in large numbers, admittedly). But they generally get away with it because the claimant doesn't know before the company is dissolved. I have never come across a situation where Companies House have dissolved a company after objections have been made, so I couldn't say for certain whether this can be overturned. There are provisions for a court to restore a company - but it would cost you to do this, and it may not be worth throwing good money after bad. To be honest company law isn't my area, so I'm a bit (as in very) rusty on it. But even if this were to be the case - is it actually worth it. Even if the company was put back into existence, I cannot see how its assets will be recreated. And there is very little point in winning (assuming you do) to be told that there is no money to pay any award. The RPS can make SOME contrubution towards an unpaid basic award in that situation - but it may be less money than it has cost you to get the court to restore the company!

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Hi,

Please could somebody tell me what a Respondent should do with medical records once the employment tribunal case that required them is over. Are they returned to the Claimant? Or does the Respondent keep them? If the Respondent does keep them is the Respondent responsible for their safe keeping? Is it proper for the Claimant to ask for their return?

I would be interested to hear from anybody else who has had to hand over their medical records at the request of an Employment Tribunal.

Thanks in advance:?:

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Is the Respondent represented (by a legal firm)? If so, what will happen is that their file, plus one copy of everything supporting (bundles, documents etc) will go into storage (secure) for six years. Anything remaining copies will be (securely) shredded.

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It does not help if you start new threads! I assune this is linked to your last enquiry? In which case I am confused, as it seems that the respondent does not exist - so how could they have asked for medical records?

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  • 2 weeks later...

First of all, sorry about posting two separate questions; I apologize for any confusion it was not deliberate on my part.

 

Secondly to put the timeline of events into perspective: At the time the medical records were given to the Respondent, the Respondent had not applied for dissolution at Companies House.

 

Whilst the medical records were in the hands of the Respondent the company was accidently removed from the Register of Companies. Since then the Respondent appointed a new legal representative, who has admitted that all the company records have been "lost".

 

I wrote and complained to the Employment Tribunal about this loss, but the Tribunal's response was less than helpful as they said there was nothing they could do. I find this amazing that an person can be instructed by the Tribunal to hand over their highly personal and confidential records to a Respondent, over can then "lose" them without any penalty or comeback.

 

Yes, I realize the documents were handed over to a corporate entity which no longer exists - but surely somebody has to be "responsible".

 

Then miraculously the Medical Records reappeared only to be used as a "bartering piece" as the Respondent sought to - only to disappear again.

Edited by citizenB
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