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    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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Ebay Car purchase (Trader) Needs new engine after 10 weeks


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Did you get a receipt ?

 

Now, this is where I may have a problem. I did get a receipt, not on headed paper, just handwritten. However, it appears to have now been lost.

 

Paid £200 deposit via paypal and the balance in cash. Big Problem??

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If i am right then your time for making sure the goods were of a satisfactory condition has passed. Where you mention the first problem the seller has a defence of goodwill. He can easily say he did it as a gesture of goodwill and so on. Again the sellers defence will be the same by saying he sold the vehicle as seen. For a start you will the receipt. Also a copy of the e bay listing . Also if you want to give the trader some grief then you can report him to dvla for not being registered as a trader as any more then 6 vehicles in a year and you have to be registered with them. Also drop a note off to hm customs notifying them of his business. Chances are he is avoiding tax. Also personally take the hit and write it off as a bad experience.

So whats cooking today ?

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Qwerty,

 

I too have an expensive driveway ornament that I cannot afford to repair.

 

Put a moneyclaim claim in ASAP. At least you have a chance...I bet you will get nowhere with this dealer.

 

Also if you want to give the trader some grief then you can report him to dvla for not being registered as a trader as any more then 6 vehicles in a year and you have to be registered with them. Also drop a note off to hm customs notifying them of his business. Chances are he is avoiding tax.

 

Interesting!

Is it possible to see if a dealer is registered with the DVLA? How would I report one that's not?

 

Ditto for hm customs?

 

And a hypothetical. If it did arise that a dealer was not registered with the DVLA would it be a good idea to inform the court of this?

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Looks like I have nothing to lose really, so will send the final letter before action tomorrow. Is moneyclaim.gov the best/only way to proceed?

 

Looks like I have a fair bit of reading to do over the next few days.

 

It's very easy. You just fill in an online form and pay online.

 

Just be specific about what happened and when.

 

The dealer will be sent this and given 2 weeks to respond, or he can ask for 2 more weeks to do this.

 

The forms will be looked at by a judge who will make a judgment. Or, if the dealer does not respond the judgment will be entered against them by default.

 

If he does not pay after the judgment is served use the hoigh court enforcement officers...he'll be responsible for all their costs too.

 

Mostly that's enough for them to cough up..

 

However if you have a particularly slimy rip off dealer like mine they can ask for a set aside.

 

I'll let you know how that goes!!!

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Qwerty,

 

I too have an expensive driveway ornament that I cannot afford to repair.

 

Put a moneyclaim claim in ASAP. At least you have a chance...I bet you will get nowhere with this dealer.

 

 

 

Interesting!

Is it possible to see if a dealer is registered with the DVLA? How would I report one that's not?

 

Ditto for hm customs?

 

And a hypothetical. If it did arise that a dealer was not registered with the DVLA would it be a good idea to inform the court of this?

 

 

Come on people. I thought you lot knew this ? If a person sells 6 or more cars a year he has to register with dvla as a seller. If he doesnt then thats how he gets away with avoiding tax. You have to be sure he is selling more than 6 cars a year. While you are at it also notify the local council trading standards as well. Do you have a name for him and details like that ?

So whats cooking today ?

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Come on people. I thought you lot knew this ? If a person sells 6 or more cars a year he has to register with dvla as a seller. ?

 

I didn't know that, can you post a link to that regulation please.

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Come on people. I thought you lot knew this ? If a person sells 6 or more cars a year he has to register with dvla as a seller. If he doesnt then thats how he gets away with avoiding tax. You have to be sure he is selling more than 6 cars a year. While you are at it also notify the local council trading standards as well. Do you have a name for him and details like that ?

 

I did not know this 6 cars per year thing?

 

He sells at least 6 per month on ebay, £90k turnover in last 3 months on ebay alone, has over 10 cars on autotrader now. I would not class him as a "dodgy" dealer and would be surprised if he is avoiding tax. He has Trade plates. I have his name address, telephone numbers etc.

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You can bet he sells his 6 cars per month as a faux 'private seller'. i expect that 90K did not go through the books and he probably makes a 'small profit' through his front business.

 

You paid a deposit via paypal and the rest cash...need I say more?

 

Don't make up excuses for this man, he sold you a faulty vehicle.

 

If you had bought anything else and it fell apart and was unusable within a few moths would you accept it?

 

Would it be OK for you to make 90k in 3 months and avoid the tax on it?

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You didnt buy it from a trader in monarch **** medway ?

 

No I did not.

 

I have just received a solicitors letter in response to my two letters. I will update the thread later with the detials.

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Today I received a letter from a solicitor in response to the two letters that I sent.

 

To paraphrase;

 

We are instructed to act on behalf of.................and accordingly note our interest.

 

The car was sold via eBay auction site, you will note from the listing that the seller does not accept returns. Having said that the car was 52 plate and mileage was 114k.

 

The car was sold as seen, genuinely described....with regards the alleged defects he has no offers to make in respect of your car.

That's it. Quite brief. No mention regarding my request for refund,repair or replacement or the SOGA.

 

Does this now mean I have to send any further letters to the solictor? Or to both solictor and dealer?

 

Next step Final Letter then I suppose?

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The car was sold as seen,

 

Then he has not got a clue, if this is a genuine solicitor, he should know that 'sold as seen' is not a term that can be included into a car sale.

 

If you haven't found it before I do, I will quote from the regulations where it says so in black and white and you can make a paper dart from it throw it through his window.

 

It is in fact a criminal offence to say sold as seen in that context.

 

This is from Trading Standards:

 

Using the term 'sold as seen' in these circumstances may also be a criminal offence under the Consumer Transactions (Restrictions on Statements) Order, as it would be seen as an attempt to restrict a consumer's legal rights. If you want to use any disclaimers, either in contracts or in signs on the garage premises, it is best to seek advice from Trading Standards or your company solicitor first.

 

Edited by Conniff
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Thanks again Coniff, this is what I thought. It's definitely a "real" solicitor. (Website, phone numbers all legit etc)

 

The letter just gives me the impression that they have not even thought about what I requested in my letter and perhaps they are just trying to scare me off with a letter from a solicitor on expensive paper.

 

Although at no point was "sold as seen" ever mentioned in the ebay ad or in conversation during the sale.

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Qwerty,

 

The more you let time pass the more he will say you 'had the car x months' etc.

I think you need to act fast!

 

However, I need to thank you as your thread has helped me out. I have noticed of the bottom of the company headed receipt I have it states 'sold as seen'.

 

For those in the know, would it be wise to include something like this in my letter to court.....?

 

 

Mr. Nobhead will no doubt argue the vehicle was ‘sold as seen’, a term he included on the receipt. However, he assured me the vehicle had no faults and it was therefore bought under this misleading assurance. The vehicle was certainly not of satisfactory quality although this was not apparent to me at the time of purchase. I have also sought advice from the Office of Fair Trading regarding the term 'sold as seen'. They state the following:

 

 

Using the term 'sold as seen' in these circumstances may also be a criminal offence under the Consumer Transactions (Restrictions on Statements) Order, as it would be seen as an attempt to restrict a consumer's legal rights.“

 

Also, as the receipt is headed with the company name it will be hard for him to say it was a private sale wont it?

 

 

Sorry, to temporarily hijack the thread qwerty!

Edited by Mountain
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Sold as seen means you have got the right to test the vehicle etc. However due to the nature of it. Nobody can guarantee a car which they are selling. If you get a receipt which states sold as seen then somewhere on the receipt it will state that you accept the terms of the sale. This is where you are stuffed. You need to find this out urgently. Did you sign anything when collecting the car ? Ie when you paid for it ?

So whats cooking today ?

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Looks like I'm stuffed then, I stupidly signed the receipt:mad:

 

I also have no more money to pursue this.

 

Once again justice is a commodity for the wealthy.

 

Was the car advertised at one price and sold to you at a lower price ?

So whats cooking today ?

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Sorry but 'sold as seen' has no standing in law and to use it is an attempt to reduce at best and take away at worse the buyers statutory rights.

 

To use the words 'sold as seen' is a criminal offence which can be reduced to unlawful if it also states, 'this does not affect your statutory rights'.

 

Quite simply, sold as seen cannot be used except for what can be seen.

Edited by Conniff
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