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    • In my experience (not with car payments) but with many other things, my partner has been ill and signed off in the past and we have been unable to meet various commitments.  Naturally if you ring the call centre they are going to fob you off and tell you you must pay, that's why that never ever works. I would obtain a note from her GP listing all her health issues plus medications plus side effects, then write to the finance company with a copy of it, explaining the situation, as you have here, asking for a payment holiday. Perhaps mention that the car is very much needed for hospital appointments etc. It's likely the finance company would rather you pay till term end than, chase you for money they will never see, and sell the car at auction for a loss,  You can search some of my threads going back years, advising people to do this for Council Tax, Tax Credits, HMRC, Even a solicitors company and it always works, because contrary to popular belief people are reasonable.
    • Sorry, I haven't ever seen one of these agreements. Read it all and look out for anything that says when she can withdraw and when she is committed to go ahead. If it isn't clear she may need to call the housing provider and simply say what you posted here, she doesn't want to go ahead and how does she withdraw her swap application?
    • Thank you! Your head is like a power bank of knowledge.  Her health issues are short term, due to a relationship breakdown she took it pretty hard and has been signed off work on medication for 3 months. She only started her job in February 24 so does not qualify for any occupational sick benefits, which is where the ssp only comes in. (You will see me posting a few things over the coming days, whilst I try and sort some things for her)  I sat with her last night relaying all this back and she does want to work out a plan, she was ready to propose £100 for the next 3 months and then an additional £70 per month onto of her contractual to "catch up" but Money247 rejecting the payment holiday and demanding £200 thew her, which is why I came on here.   
    • I've looked at your case specifically more.   Term 8bii reads " when, in accordance with instructions from the Customer or the Consignee, the Consignment is left in a safe place" Their terms choose to not define safe, so they are put to proof that the location is safe. If your property opens onto a street its a simple thing of putting a google earth image and pointing out that its not a safe place
    • New rules and higher rates resulted in a jump in the number of savers opening accounts at the start of this year's Isa season.View the full article
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      On 15/1/24 booked appointment with Big Motoring World (BMW) to view a mini on 17/1/24 at 8pm at their Enfield dealership.  

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      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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Does a bank have a duty of care ?


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Briefly, I have a relative who has a current account overdraft (with a high street bank), which has he has paid a set fixed amount each month £75. The balance has minutely decreased over the past 5 years, with much of the £75 paying over the overdraft interest at 20%. He has never used the account in 6 years, just had regular £75 pcm being paid in, so the balance has reduced from around £5,000 to £4,000.

 

He has never been contacted by the bank in those 6 years to suggest he transfer that overdraft to a loan. It would seem the bank are very happy with him plugging in a way with the set amount.

 

They have never, once called or written suggesting an alternative ie loan, or increase the amount each month by a small amount.

 

A little whiz on a loan calculator says that the £5K would have been paid off, if he increased his payments to £119 in the 6 years even at the high 20% apr. If a loan of say 7% apr was applied the payments would reduce to £84pcm and still be cleared in the 6 years !!!! At present he still owes £4K.

 

Does the bank have any responsibility, duty of care to advise him, or at least contact him in that 6 year period ? Or is it 100% down to him ? Any ways forward here ?

 

Thanks for reading this.

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Guest liamgee

I am surprised that at an interest rate of 20% he managed to reduced the balance at all with £75 a month payments. Have you considered the unenforcability route?

 

As regard duty of care its probably more pertinant to examine how the £5,000 overdraft was given (i.e. was it mis-sold etc).

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There is a duty of care on BOTH sides. Just because something is disadvantageous does not automatically mean that the service supplier (bank) has to advise or indeed do anything. This is well documented when old high interest savings accounts change to offer next to nothing, and the onus remains with hte account holder to notice and make alternative arrangements.

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Thanks Buzby, I see your thinking and I accept the point.

 

Is there any best way of him asking the bank to review its position of having taken vitually 6 years worth of interest whilst making hardly any dent in the original borrowing. He's been a stupid, but I can't help feeling that had anyone at the bank contacted him, phone or letter, and said look here if you do this that and the other, the debt would have disappeared by now.

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I would say as well, with income of only £75 a month that the loan would probably fail because the account is being serviced with a small amount of money each month. Internal credit scoring alone would decline it, IMHO.

.

FSA Waiver on Bank Charges:http://www.fsa.gov.uk/pages/Doing/Regulated/Notify/Waiver/pdf/dir_quart_0709.pdf

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By all means, if you don't ask you don't get - trhere's no guarantee that they'll look at it as sympathetically as they may have done in the past, but providing you don't storm in indignantly it might pay dividends....

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  • 3 weeks later...
Briefly, I have a relative who has a current account overdraft (with a high street bank), which has he has paid a set fixed amount each month £75. The balance has minutely decreased over the past 5 years, with much of the £75 paying over the overdraft interest at 20%. He has never used the account in 6 years, just had regular £75 pcm being paid in, so the balance has reduced from around £5,000 to £4,000.

 

He has never been contacted by the bank in those 6 years to suggest he transfer that overdraft to a loan. It would seem the bank are very happy with him plugging in a way with the set amount.

 

They have never, once called or written suggesting an alternative ie loan, or increase the amount each month by a small amount.

 

A little whiz on a loan calculator says that the £5K would have been paid off, if he increased his payments to £119 in the 6 years even at the high 20% apr. If a loan of say 7% apr was applied the payments would reduce to £84pcm and still be cleared in the 6 years !!!! At present he still owes £4K.

 

Does the bank have any responsibility, duty of care to advise him, or at least contact him in that 6 year period ? Or is it 100% down to him ? Any ways forward here ?

 

Thanks for reading this.

 

I would suggest it would be worth your relative sending a SAR (unless they already have their statements), to establish if there were any charges on the account. If so, with interest at 20% over this length of time I think there's a good chance that much, if not all the overdraft would be wiped out.

 

I see no sense in looking into enforceability as there wouldn't be a credit agreement for an overdraft.

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