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    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

      Please note that a recent case against UPS failed on exactly the same issue with the judge held that the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 did not apply.

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      This is good ethical practice.

      It would be very nice if the parcel delivery companies – including EVRi – practised this kind of thing as well.

       

      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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CCA Request reply from Lewis


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Just got a cca request back from lewis today with regards to a credit card i had with the TSB 7 years ago & it goes some thing like this.

 

Asset application form & agreement.

 

If your application is accepted by our signature below and we send you a card, then this will form the agreement, made between you the principal cardholder & us Lloyds TSB based on the conditions overleaf.

 

CREDIT AGREEMENT REGULATED BY THE CONSUMER CREDIT ACT 1974

 

It has been signed by both parties, however it has no APR etc and the "Conditions overleaf" seem to just be a photocopy of current conditions of there cards.

 

Not to sure if this is forms an agreement or not, could someone please point me in the right direction of some samples or what are & what aren't agreements.

 

Any help would be much appreciated.

 

Cheers.

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Guest Mincemeat

Have they sent a signed copy of the statement of account showing what is due and when (signed properly in ink, by a person)?

 

I'd send back a letter stating that they haven't complied with the request you made and that you suggest they read the relevant legislation before attempting to fulfil their statutory duties.

 

There are a number of prescribed items that an agreement needs to have on it if it can be enforced by a court of law. If you've had this for 7 years I believe (and don't anyone shoot me down here) that they need to state APR, just interest. The whole agreement needs to have the heading containing 'Agreement under the Consumer Credit Act 1974', it needs to have a credit limit (or a statement along the lines of 'we will inform you of your credit limit'), it needs to have the frequency of repayments, and a couple of other things that have slipped my mind at the moment. Oh yes, there must be a signature box for you to sign, again headed with something containing 'consumer credit act 1974' and nothing else. Have they signed the agreement or stamped it? If it is a stamp, and it is just a stamp of someones signature without the words 'on behalf of XXXXX' this too may not be sufficient to execute the agreement.

 

There are a couple of behemoth threads on here where this is discussed in more detail

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There is no APR or Credit limits anywhere on the front page, however having a closer look there is APR in the conditions that they have sent.

 

e.g.

 

Outstanding balance first 6 months 15.9%

 

Outstanding balance after 6 months

 

upto £499.99 18.9%

£500-£999.99 17.8%

£1k or more £15.9%

 

on the front of the document it give me a choice of which card i would like (Visa or Master card), card design etc which pushes me towards this is an application form & not an agreement.

 

Signature box is there with "This is a credit agreement regulated by the consumer credit act 1974, sign it only if you want to be legaly bound by it's terms. signed by myself.

 

For bank use only at the bottom of the page - "Siganture for Lloyds TSB PLC". Signed by lloyds.

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Guest Mincemeat

As this is a little bit older, the APR is allowed to be in the T&C's and not in the signature document. Does it mention the credit limit at all? If not in monetary terms, it should state something like 'we will advise you etc'. Does it also state how frequent payments are required?

 

By the sound of things this does sound like it might have enough wings to be enforceable as an agreement - even though it obviously is an application form. There are differing opinions on here with regards to whether or not an application form can ever be an agreement, and there are quotes from a minister to state that one cannot be the other, but this is as yet untried.

 

I'd try and get them to produce the original terms and conditions, as it will have been a term in the original document that allowed them to update the terms and conditions, and without it how can you check the validity of them sending you the updated T&C's?

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Again in the terms & conditions they have sent is says

 

a) we will set and notify you of your credit limit.

 

g) Statments will show the minimum you must pay and the payment date. Normally this will be 25 days after the statment date.

 

It also says above the signature box "I Apply for the asset card on the conditions overleaf.

 

The conditions they have sent are just a photo copy and have no signature on them, my signature is only on the front of the application form.

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Oh dear - they don't really have a clue :D

HAVE YOU BEEN TREATED UNFAIRLY BY CREDITORS OR DCA's?

 

BEWARE OF CLAIMS MANAGEMENT COMPANIES OFFERING TO WRITE OFF YOUR DEBTS.

 

 

Please note opinions given by rory32 are offered informally as a lay-person in good faith based on personal experience. For legal advice, you must always consult a registered and insured lawyer.

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Just being thoughly reading the condtions and have noticed on condition 4 it says "Credit limit (see also conditions 5(g) and (h))", however the conditions 5 & half of condition 6 are missing, will this make any differance at all in this being an enforceable Agreement/Application.

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Have you been to the site I put a link on for you where you can enter the information you have on your alleged CCA and it will tell you if it is any good or not.

 

Financial Agreement Solutions

 

When you go to the site click on 'Check Agreement'. This will open up into a form and where you enter the information if it is included on the application form you have been sent. It will then generate a report for you.

 

The alternative is to scan the document and post it on this thread so it can be seen and commented on. Block out personal info first.

 

dencha

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