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    • Please see my comments on your post in red
    • Thanks for your reply, I have another 3 weeks before the notice ends. I'm also concerned because the property has detoriated since I've been here due to mould, damp and rusting (which I've never seen in a property before) rusty hinges and other damage to the front door caused by damp and mould, I'm concerned they could try and charge me for damages? As long as you've documented and reported this previously you'll have a right to challenge any costs. There was no inventory when I moved in, I also didn't have to pay a deposit. Do an inventory when you move out as proof of the property's condition as you leave it. I've also been told that if I leave before a possession order is given I would be deemed intentionally homeless, is this true? If you leave, yes. However, Your local council has a legal obligation to ensure you won't be left homeless as soon as you get the notice. As stated before, you don't have to leave when the notice expires if you haven't got somewhere else to go. Just keep paying your rent as normal. Your tenancy doesn't legally end until a possession warrant is executed against you or you leave and hand the keys back. My daughter doesn't live with me, I'd likely have medical priority as I have health issues and I'm on pip etc. Contact the council and make them aware then.      
    • extension? you mean enforcement. after 6yrs its very rare for a judge to allow enforcement. it wont have been sold on, just passed around the various differing trading names the claimant uses.    
    • You believe you have cast iron evidence. However, all they’d have to do to oppose a request for summary judgment is to say “we will be putting forward our own evidence and the evidence from both parties needs to be heard and assessed by a judge” : the bar for summary judgment is set quite high! You believe they don't have evidence but that on its own doesn't mean they wouldn't try! so, its a high risk strategy that leaves you on the hook for their costs if it doesn't work. Let the usual process play out.
    • Ok, I don't necessarily want to re-open my old thread but I've seen a number of such threads with regards to CCJ's and want to ask a fairly general consensus on the subject. My original CCJ is 7 years old now and has had 2/3 owners for the debt over the years since with varying level of contact.  Up to last summer they had attempted a charging order on a shared mortgage I'm named on which I defended that action and tried to negotiate with them to the point they withdrew the charging order application pending negotiations which we never came to an agreement over.  However, after a number of communication I heard nothing back since last Autumn barring an annual generic statement early this year despite multiple messages to them since at the time.  at a loss as to why the sudden loss of response from them. Then something came through from this site at random yesterday whilst out that I can't find now with regards to CCJ's to read over again.  Now here is the thing, I get how CCJ's don't expire as such, but I've been reading through threads and Google since this morning and a little confused.  CCJ's don't expire but can be effectively statute barred after 6 years (when in my case was just before I last heard of the creditor) if they are neither enforced in that time or they apply to the court within the 6 years of issue to extend the CCJ and that after 6 years they can't really without great difficulty or explanation apply for a CCJ extension after of the original CCJ?.  Is this actually correct as I've read various sources on Google and threads that suggest there is something to this?.
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Trust of Land Act


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My mother in law has got to sell her farm to the local council as they wish to build a road. About 23 years ago my sister in law and her partner moved into a mobile home on the farm . They gave the in laws £20000 and lived there rent and bill free for 4 years until he decided to leave. When the money was given my father in law (now deceased) without my mother in law's knowledge (in laws joint names on the deeds only) gave them a letter saying they would get 20,000 back plus 20 per cent of the profit of the sale. The council are paying 350,000 for the farm plus her solicitors bill stress etc which amounts to about 530,000. Her solicitor said that the her half of the property could not be taken into account as she had not signed the letter and the most he would be getting was 34,000. He has now said he wants 110,00 and is quoting Trust of Land Act. Can some one please explain this to me as my mother in laws solicitor said she did not really understand it. Many thanks

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Good evening Sanpez

 

Based upon your above posting, it appears that there is a debt owed at law to your sister-in-law pursuant to the terms of the said letter. Can you post up the full contents of the said letter, further, did your sister-in-law and her partner carry out any work on the farm, assist with the daily running thereof etc, etc?

 

Kind regards

 

The Mould

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Thank you for your quick reply, unfortunately I do not have a copy of the letter, I will try to get a copy although it is a bit old 1981 I think. My sister in law and her then partner lived there for about 4 years and they had their own horses that they stabled there and did not do any other work for the farm. They gave the inlaws 20,000 as the purchase of the farm cleared the inlaws out, but did not pay rent or bills. After 4 years he left and my sister in law moved out as well. There is no dispute that they are owed the 20,000 with 20 per cent interest on the profit from the sale of the farm, incidently it is not my sister in law who is asking for the money but her ex partner who has appeared after 20 years. I will try and get a copy of the letter and post it for you to read. It just seems so unfair that he is entitled to £110,000 due to this Land Act when he has not contributed to the upkeep for over 20 years and the fact that my mother in law is the one losing out.

Kind regards

sanpez

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Good morning Sanpez

 

I apologise for my confusion as to the party making the claim, I understand now that it is your sister-in-law's ex partner, thank you.

 

Did your sister-in-law and her then partner put up the funds of the said £20,000 jointly?

 

The ex's claim will turn on the terms of the agreement set out in the said letter provided by your father-in-law and whether or not he (the ex) put the full amount of the said sum up out of his own finances.

 

The above needs to be established by you, it may be the case that the ex is only entitled to 50% of the £20,000 and 50% of the said agreed 20% promised by your father-in-law in the said letter.

 

How has the ex calculated the sum of £110,000 that he asserts entitlement to?

 

On another note, do you have any idea as to what Andrew88 means by his above post?

 

Kind regards

 

The Mould

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Hi,

Many thanks for your reply not sure how he has calculated the amount but have been told by his solicitor that it is something to do with the land act. Mother in law has no problem in giving him half of the 20,000 + 50% of the 20% per cent of the profit. His solicitor has sent a letter saying that he is entitled to £110,000 because of this Land Act. The original 20,000 was paid to the in laws by both sister in law and ex partner. He has had no contact with them for over 20 years and has not done any maintenance, when they gave the money father in law gave the letter regarding pay back, when he left he put a claim against the land for when it was sold to get his money back which is fine it is just the amount that he has come up with. My mother in law is 78 disabled having to move because of a road and she really does not need all this. Thank you for any advice you can give.

 

Regarding Andrews88 I can not see his post.

 

Many thanks

Sanpez

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Thank you Sanpez

 

At what stage is the dispute concerning this matter?

 

Has the ex, through his representatives, set out his claim against the Estate in full and the grounds as to why he asserts entitlement to a sum of £110,000 under the said agreement with your late father-in-law? If he has not, send a written request to his representatives for the same, stating that you do not dispute that their client has a claim on the Estate, however, in the absence of details as to how your client asserts entitlement to the sum of £110,000, we believe, on the facts as to how the said agreement came about and that your client did not fund the entirety £20,000 out of his own finances, that your clients' claim to such sum is groundless.

 

Further to the above, contrary to your clients' claim to the said sum of £110,000, it is in fact the case that your client is only lawfully entitled to 50% of both the said £20,000 and the said 20% of the £350,000 sale price of the property pursuant to the said agreement made between your client, my sister-in-law (state her name instead) and my late father-in-law (again, state his name instead).

 

The above is only an example for you Sanpez and may not be relevant, depending on the stage of this dispute, in any event, I do hope this will be of some help to you and your family.

 

Kind regards

 

The Mould

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