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    • Hi, despite saying you would post it up we have not seen the WS or EVRis WS. Please can you post them up.
    • Hi, Sorry its taken me so long to get round to this, i've been pretty busy today. Anyway, just a couple of things based on your observations.   Evri have not seen/read my WS (sent by post and by email) as they would have recognised the claim value is over £1000 as it includes court fees, trial fees, postage costs and interests, and there is a complete breakdown of the different costs and evidence. I'd say theres a 1% chance they read it , but in any case it won't change what they write. They refer to the claim amount that you claimed in your claim form originally, which will likely be in the same as the defence. They use a simple standard copy and paste format for WX and I've never seen it include any amount other than on the claim form but this is immaterial because it makes no difference to whether evri be liable and if so to what value which is the matter in dispute. However, I have a thinking that EVRi staff are under lots of pressure, they seem to be working up to and beyond 7pm even on fridays, and this is quite unusual so they likely save time by just copying and pasting certain lines of their defence to form their WX.   Evri accepts the parcel is lost after it entered their delivery network - again, this is in my WS and is not an issue in dispute. This is just one of their copy paste lines that they always use.   Evri mentions the £25 and £4.82 paid by Packlink - Again, had they read the WS, they would have realised this is not an issue in dispute. They probably haven't read your WS but did you account for this in your claim form?   Furthermore to the eBay Powered By Packlink T&Cs that Evri is referring to, Clauses 3b and c of the T&Cs states:  (b)   Packlink is a package dispatch search engine that acts as an intermediary between its Users and Transport Agencies. Through the Website, Users can check the prices that different Transport Agencies offer for shipments and contract with the Transport Agency that best suits their needs on-line. (c)  Each User shall then enter into its own contract with the chosen Transport Agency. Packlink does not have any control over, and disclaims all liability that may arise in contracts between a User and a Transport Agency This supports the view that once a user (i.e, myself) selects a transport agency (i.e Evri) that best suits the user's needs, the user (i.e, myself) enters into a contract with the chosen transport agency (i.e, myself). Therefore, under the T&Cs, there is a contract between myself and Evri.   This is correct but you have gone into this claim as trying to claim as a third party. I would say that you need to pick which fight you wan't to make. Either you pick the fight that you contracted directly with EVRi therefore you can apply the CRA OR you pick the fight that you are claiming as a third party contract to a contract between packlink and EVRi. Personally, I would go with the argument that you contracted directly with evri because the terms and conditions are pretty clear that the contract is formed with EVRi and so if the judge accepts this you are just applying your CR under CRA 2015, of which there has only been 2 judges I have seen who have failed to accept the argument of the CRA.   Evri cites their pre-existing agreement with Packlink and that I cannot enforce 3rd party rights under the 1999 Act. Evri has not provided a copy of this contract, and furthermore, my point above explains that the T&Cs clearly explains I have entered into a contract when i chose Evri to deliver my parcel.    This is fine, but again I would say that you should focus on claiming under the contract you have with EVRi as you entered into a direct contract with them according to packlink, as this gives less opportunites for the judge to get things wrong, also I think this is a much better legal position because you can apply your CR to it, if you dealt with a third party claim you would likely need to rely on business contract rights.   As explained in my WS, i am the non-gratuitous beneficiary as my payment for Evri's delivery service through Packlink is the sole reason for the principal contract coming into existence. I wouldn't focus this as your argument. I did think about this earlier and I think the sole focus of your claim should be that you contracted with evri and any term within their T&Cs that limits their liability is a breach of CRA. If you try to argue that the payment to packlink is the sole reason for the contract coming in between EVRI and packlink then you are essentially going against yourself since on one hand you are (And should be) arguing that you contracted directly with EVRi, but on the other hand by arguing about funding the contract between packlink and evri you are then saying that the contract is between packlink and evri not you and evri.  I think you should focus your argument that the contract is between you and evri as the packlink T&C's say.   Clearly Evri have not read by WS as the above is all clearly explained in there.   I doubt they have too, but I think their witness statement more than anything is an attempt to sort of confuse things. They reference various parts of the T&Cs within their WS and I've left some more general points on their WS below although I do think  point 3b as you have mentioned is very important because it says "Users can check the prices that different Transport Agencies offer for shipments and contract with the Transport Agency that best suits their needs on-line." which I would argue means that you contract directly with the agency. For points 9 and 10 focus on term 3c of the contract  points 15-18 are the same as points 18-21 of the defence if you look at it (as i said above its just a copy paste exercise) point 21 term 3c again point 23 is interesting - it says they are responsible for organising it but doesnt say anything about a contract  More generally for 24-29 it seems they are essentially saying you agreed to packlinks terms which means you can't have a contract with EVRI. This isnt true, you have simply agreed to the terms that expressly say your contract is formed with the ttransport agency (EVRi). They also reference that packlinks obligations are £25 but again this doesn't limit evris obligations, there is nothing that says that the transport agency isnt liable for more, it just says that packlinks limitation is set. for what its worth point 31 has no applicability because the contract hasn't been produced.   but overall I think its most important to focus on terms 3b and 3c of the contract and apply your rights as a consumer and not as a third party and use the third party as a backup   
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      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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Invalid Default Notices


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I have received a DN from one of the major banks giving 14 days, no time for posting. Just waiting for the Termination.

 

They have also responded to my last letter regarding their supplying an application form as an agreement. They are adamant that both are one in the same?

 

CPR next I think.

 

Vint

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hiya all

 

have had a dn today date of the letter means i would have had to have had it on that day to rectify before the date due therefore no allowance given for delivery service ie 14 days exact from date of letter to the date before the 6.06.09...

 

 

as i now understand hope im clear in this,,,is that as they have said if i dont comply and pay the arrears then they Will Terminate the agreement - shall i pray they do cos then they can only ever claim the arrears legally due????????

 

they have done this with another of my cards too and yet not heard from them in a while,,,wonder why? hmemmm

 

hoping ive got this right in my head finally now....

 

pls confirm guys cheers angel x

 

Hi angel,

 

What company was the DN from?

 

Vint

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Hi Angel,

 

Thanks for asking, I am mighty fine today.

 

From the timescales I thought it might be HBOS. I had the same 14 days, faulty DN.

 

They have now terminated so I think it's game over with exception to the arrears. Just waiting for a response from someone in the know.

 

In 14 days or so you should get your termination notice.

 

Vint

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Excuse me WillThey, this is my thread and your questions go on forever. If you need to ask about the legality of Default Notices, please start your own thread.

 

Today's update. A reply from one of the bank's who sent an invalid DN in which they continue a previous dispute with them, now long finished, and don't even mention the point I raised about the invalid DN and termination. Their customer advisers know nothing about the law. I have replied that his reply is drivel and he should pass it on to someone who understands what I am talking about. I have given them 28 days to remove the default and make an offer of compensation. I've got a feeling this is going to be long haul and will end up in court.

 

The bank who "forgot" to close my account after I had settled and entered a default over a year later has referred it to the equivalent of their complaints department. Looks like that will end up in court too in due course.

 

No reply at all from Bank 3 but they got the SAR today.

 

The more difficult they make this the worse it is for them and I am in no hurry. Have sent Letter Before Action letters to the bank who didn't close the account and 2 of the CRAs - the 3rd CRA has removed the entry.

 

Pinky,

 

None of them seem to have a clue. Worrying realy. They appear to start off down a set path and are unable to deviate. The problem is that Banks think everything can be done from the computer, without human input. When you do get a human respond to you, they are only able to spout party lines.

 

I think most of these cases will end up in Court.

 

Vint

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  • 1 month later...
Been busy tonight getting the first case onto official Court Claim document - it's a masterpiece!:lol: I have 3 to do so will do 1 a night for 3 nights then lodge at the Court on Thursday.

 

Have also been busy replyng to one of Equifax's letters. For all they say, they are not comfortable with any of this but are bleating that their hands are tied. So that's my cue to put even more pressure on and I will be sending copies to Experian and Callcredit - why should they miss out? Here is a copy for your evening reading.:grin:

 

Dear Person at Equifax,

 

 

I am in receipt of your letter of 7/1/2009 (I think you meant 7/7) and note all you say.

 

What you neglect to say is that the information shared by lenders and credit reference agencies should be accurate and legitimately shared. The way the system is a lender can tell credit reference agencies anything and when the customer objects that it is wrong, it cannot be removed just because the lender says they are right. They should have to prove that they are right once the customer has disputed the entry.

 

I will be lodging litigation against (bank) and (bank) this week if the defaults are not removed by midnight on Wednesday 15 July 2009. They have had Letters Before Action and have had plenty of time to remove data they placed unlawfully with the credit reference agencies.

 

(Bank 3) does not have an agreement for this alleged debt. What they have is an application form with none of the Prescribed Terms required for an agreement and nowhere on that application form do I give them permission to pass my data on to any third party. They then served a Default Notice in breach of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 S 87 (1) on a disputed account which had no agreement. The Default Notice was itself in breach of the Consumer Agreements (Enforcements, Default and Termination Notices) Regulations 1983 and the CCA 1974 for several reasons. Ignoring the fact they had no agreement, they then terminated the alleged agreement causing unlawful rescission. So they had no authority to process my data from the outset and the alleged agreement in dispute had been rescinded unlawfully when they entered the defaults with the credit reference agencies. All clauses in an alleged agreement are rescinded when it is rescinded, including any clause about processing data so they had no permission of any kind to process my data after rescission, a double shot in their corporate foot. They have had 34 years to get it right and they still cannot do it. Yet their word is accepted as gospel and I have to go to court to get them removed? There is everything far wrong with that and I will be raising it with the ICO once court proceedings have been concluded. Even the amount on the DN and the amount on the credit reference report is different – I have never defaulted any account for (amount). The system as it is totally biased in favour of the banks and that has got to change. Where the credit reference agencies leave themselves wide open for possible action is that they give undue weight to the views of the banks without reason to do so when entries are disputed. They do not check either the accuracy or the legitimacy of the information they are given when it is disputed by the customer. If they are not able to do so, then they shouldn’t be entering disputed defaults at all as they have no way of knowing if they are correct. I will be pursuing this further after the forthcoming court hearings.

 

(Bank 1) put erroneous entries on my credit reports and they were there for 3 years after an account had been paid in full and should have been closed. They removed them, then put them back on again at the beginning of June and I had to get them to remove them again. Only Experian did not re-enter them. The entries in June were a load of garbage and Equifax would have been content to leave them there if (Bank 1) hadn’t removed them again.

 

 

(Bank 2) has no agreements for 2 defaulted accounts, which they themselves admit, and one they terminated after an unlawful Default Notice (they only allowed 12 days for the alleged breach to be remedied instead of the required 14) and the other they terminated without a default Notice at all. Both alleged accounts were rescinded unlawfully before the defaults were entered on my credit reference reports. They said the DN allowed sufficient time for the remedy to be breached – wrong! - and they could terminate agreements without Default Notices – not unless they want to rescind them they can’t. Let them tell that to a court and see how far they get. There have been several serious breaches of law by both companies.

 

There are 2 other entries that shouldn’t be on my reports, one by (DCA) which has no agreement for the alleged debt and no proof they were authorised to collect any debt in my name and one by (Bank) which has no agreement either – it has no documentation pertaining to the alleged debt of any kind. However, these defaults will be falling off my reports in August and September of this year so they are not worth bothering about.

 

It’s none of your business but you make a reference to any credit applications I may make. I don’t need credit and I am not asking for the entries to be removed for that purpose. I am asking for them to be removed because they are there unlawfully.

 

You will be hearing from me again ....... (Heh! Heh! Heh! - dastardly laugh!:lol:)

Hi Pinky,

 

Did you actually use the faulty DN against them, before getting to court?

 

Vint

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  • 3 weeks later...
Hello everyone. You will all be thinking I have got lost but I've had a delay in lodging the claims at court because of family illness. That is now over so the claims go in on Monday. I have 2 claims against one company so I am goiing to lodge them seperately and I will see how the first claim goes before lodging the second. It's Scots Law so I don't know how long it will be before an actual Hearing.

 

I discovered something about one of the applications forms the bank tried to claim was an agreement - it doesn't have their address on it!!:eek: This is a not only a breach of the consumer credit agreements regulations and the CCA, it is also a breach of Company Law. They also must have the fact that they are a limited company on it and they don't. It's all griste to the mill!

Well spotted Pinky.

 

Does this mean that the address should be the CCC's head office. Should there also be a company registration number?

 

May be worth you starting a new thread for discussion.

 

Vint

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Good idea! I am going to do that Vint.

The other point is that I am sure that I have read somewhere, that the Text Credit agreement regulated by CCA1974.............. Needs to be at the head of any agreement and must be in large enough text, for example it would have to be as big or bigger than the tempting offer of 0% interest?

 

Edit:

 

CAB say that it should be at the head!

 

http://www.adviceguide.org.uk/index/d_credit_fact_sheet.pdf

Edited by vint1954
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  • 3 weeks later...
I certainly am Vint, leaning hard on the DCAs and going ahead with the legal stuff. I am going on holiday at the beginning of October for 2 weeks and I expect the real action to begin when I return. However, this is the first time that Bank 2 have shut up so there are the green shoots of a breakthrough there. That's why I am turning the pressure up on the CRAs. Until now Bank 2 have bluffed their way through but with the invalid defaults they must know their bluff has been called. I have the evidence - I think they destroyed their copies or did it on templates and don't have copies. It is going to stick in their throats to remove the defaults but they have no excuse not to. In Scots law you have to get them to remove the defaults first then claim damages in a separate action so that allows me to step the level of action against them up a notch when claiming for damages. Also, in a complaint I made to the FOS about them harrassing me for payment (nothing to do with the defaults) the Ombudsman replied to me that he had seen statements from both accounts. I didn't get any statements when I SAR'd them so either they have breached the DPA not giving me copies or they have lied to the FOS. I have written to tell the FOS this and their Review team is going to get in touch with me. If they have lied to the FOS they are in trouble there; if they have lied to me they are in trouble with the ICO. Either way it is a lose-lose situation for them. So onwards and upwards and the evidence on all fronts is building up nicely.

I will watch with interest

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  • 1 month later...
glad i found this thread

 

situation to ponder

 

if a default notice is invalid for what ever reason

not laid out in the correct format

time limit, etc etc

 

the creditor then goes on to trash your credit file

 

now being the default is crap. the creditor can only then claim the arrears if at court stage

 

CAN THE DEFENDANT PUT IN A CLAIM FOR DAMAGE TO CREDIT FILE, BEING UNLAWFULlY DEFAULTED

 

IME TALKING £1000 DAMAGES PLUS VALUE OF THE DEFAULT

 

THE WOOLWICH JUDGEMENT IME QUOTING ON THIS

 

mightbat least get the creditor to withdraw or agree removel of any default

 

just shooting from the hip on this

Also have a look here for damages

 

RICHARD DURKIN v. DGS RETAIL LIMITED+HFC BANK PLC, 26 March 2008, Sheriff J K Tierney

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This is great news, out of my many creditors, not one has sent a correct DN.

 

I have one question, if the creditor is made aware that the DN is invalid, will they still continue to court as although they can not claim the balance they can get the arrears ?

 

Cosalt

They need to terminate, following faulty DN.

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It is not quite correct to say that they can re issue the dn until they go to court

 

the contract(agreement) basically give the debtor ONE major benefit- and that is to be able to borrow money and repay it in monthly amounts of his own choosing (subject to minimum)

 

If the creditor takes any action which removes that benefit (of the agreement) and demands that the balance is now due and payable then he has rescinded the contract(agreement)

 

he either does so lawfully (by following the set procedures) or he does so unlawfully,

 

if he does it unlawfully then the law tolerates law breaking- however the creditor can no more end the agreement unlawfully by writing to you (or acting in such a way ) and saying he is no longer prepared to honour the agreement than you can by telling him to bog off!!

 

the aggreived party can insist that the other party honours the agreement (he is deemed to have taken this course if he does or says nothing but carries on as if nothing has happened)

 

OR

 

he can accept the unlawful action by the other side and agree that the other party has clearly indicated that the relationship has broken down and therefore accept the unlawful rescission .

 

However he must communicate that he has done so to avoid it being said that he has allowed the agreement to endure

 

he can do so by writing or speaking to the creditor and telling him so- or he can demonstrate by his actions (not making payments etc) that he has accepted the unlawful rescission.

 

IMO therefore the date of termination is not when the offending party seeks to say it is but when the aggrieved party makes the decision to ACCEPT the unlawful termination

 

this sequence of events may happen long before any court action is commenced but the termination cannot be undone by the creditor simply issuing a new DN

 

if you wish to use the defective DN in court you would have had to have advised the court and the other side in advace of the hearing of this - you cannot just do a "perry mason" and "spring it on them in the middle of the proceedings"

 

there is a lot to be said for clearly itemising well in advance of court proceedings what the creditors failings are for two main reasons

 

first- it may well dissuade them from throwing good money after bad in proceedings

 

secondly, it is important when the court considers costs applications that you can show that the other side were made well aware of the failings in advance and they should have dealt with the issues prior to court (see BOS V robert Mitchell for a good example)

Agreed,

 

And from x20

 

My fellow Caggers, back to the general issue ..

 

May be it was my doing or we've just hung on to this word 'termination' like Rotweillers. The thing is, at least as I see it is, that where a creditor seeks early repayment or the return of goods following service of an ineffective DN, he is by his words and conduct expressing in clear terms that he is no longer willing to perform the essential obligations he promised to provide under the credit agreement. True, these words and conduct ride on the back of the debtor's failure to perform the debtor's essential obligations. But in this event the creditor has only to follow the procedure laid out in the Act and Regulations. And the Act says unless and until he has met the requirements of the Act and the Regulations, he acquires no such entitlement. Accordingly, to withdraw from the debtor the right to pay sums due by instalments or withdraw the right to continue with possession of the goods is to withdraw in breach of the statutory code which regulates the agreement.

 

The withdrawal of the debtor's rights may in one person's parlance be the same as the creditor's termination of the agreement. Just like 'default' in the words of one person may amount to 'breach' in the words of another. Or 'repudiatory breach' in the language of lawyer A is 'renunciation' in the language of lawyer B. Let's say though, for the purpose of the stream of thinking which follows, that strictly and legally speaking, withdrawal of these rights in default (or breach) isn't a termination of the agreement and that for termination strictly so called to have occured, the creditor miut have served a notice of termination. Does that mean therefore that the creditor's withdrawal and demand for early payment and/or return of goods is something the court can waive? Something the debtor can be expected to have understood was a mistake and unintended? That it is of no consequence?

 

I've got Chitty on Contracts General Principles (26th Edition) (1991). A bit out of date but good enough on General Principles I would have thought. And I'd thought I'd open it. Always a good idea when examining the contractual relationship of parties. Interestingly, 'termination' does not have an entry of its own in the umpteen page index at the back. It says in relation to Renunciation (and if you look up Repudiatory Breach it refers to to the same page number) that:

A renunciation of a contract occurs when one party by words or conduct evinces an intention not to perform, or expressly declares that he is or will be unable to perform, his obligastions under the contract in some essential respect. An absolute refusal by one party to perform his side of the contract will entitle the other party to treat himself as discharged, as will also a clear and unambiguous assertion by one party that he will be unable to perform when the time for performance should arrive. Short of such an express refusal or declaration however, the test is to ascertain whether the action or actions of the party in default are such as to lead a reasonable person to conclude that he no longer intends to be bound by its provisions. The renunciation is then evidenced by conduct. Also, the party in default 'may intend in fact to fulfil (the contract) but may be determined to do so only in a manner substantially inconsistent with his obligations' [Federal Commerce & Navigation Co Limited v Molena Alpha Inc (1979)] or may refuse to perform the contract unless the other party complies with certain conditions not required by its terms. In such a case, there is little difficulty in holding that the contract has been renounced.

 

If one party evinces an intention not to perform or declares his inability to perform some but not all of his obligations under the contract, then the right of the other party to treat himself as discharged depends upon whether the non-performance of those obligations will amount to a breach of a condition of the contract or deprive him of substantially the whole benefit which it was the intention of the parties that he should obtain from the obligations of the parties under the contract then remaining unperformed.

 

The renunciation must be made quite plain. In particular where there is a genuine dispute as to the construction of a contract, the courts may be unwilling to hold that an expression of intentino by one party to carry out the contract only in accordance with his own erroneous interpretation of it amounts to a repudiation and the same is truew of a genuine mistake of fact or law.

The demanding of early payment is to my way of thinking the immediate withdrawal of consent to all the remaining credit provided for under the agreement. Further, that it substantially deprives the debtor of the prime benefit he was to derive under it. Such a demand constitutes a breach of the regulated agreement save where it is demanded in compliance with the Act. If the demanding of such things is not tantamount to the creditor terminating the agreement, it is, nonetheless in my opinion, the creditor's renunciation of it. in consequence and in my opinion, the debtor may fairly regard himself as discharged from the agreement.

 

Chitty has this to say:

 

Consequences of Discharge - Effect on Contract

It has become usual to speak of the exercise by one party to treat himself as discharged as a 'recission' of the contract but as Lord Porter pointed out in Heymans v Darwin limited (1942):

'To say that the contract is rescinded or has come to an end or ceased to exist may in individual cases convey the truth with sufficient accuracy, but the fuller expresion that ther injured party is thereby absolved from future performance of his obligations under the contract is a more exact description of the position. Strictly speaking, to say that on acceptance of the renunciation of a contract the contract is rescinded is incorrect.'

This statement was unanimously approved by The House of Lords in Johnson v Agnew (1980) where Lord Wilberforce emphasised that this so-called 'recission' is quite different from recission ab initio as may arise for example in cases of mistake, fraud or lack of consent. It has also become usual to speak of the contract as having been 'terminated' or 'discharged' by the breach. Again however, these expressions may be somewhat misleading for they might suggest that the contract ceases forv all purposes to exist in that event. Such an approach was indeed adopted by the Court of Appeal in Harbutt's Plastercine Limited v Wayne Tank & Pymp Co (1970) so as to prevent the party in default from relying on an expemtion clause inserted in a contract which had been 'terminated' by breach. But this case was overruled by the House of Lords in Photo Production limited v Securicor Transport limited (1980). The true position was there stated to be, where the innocent party elects to terminate the contrsct, ie to put an end to all primary obligations of both parties remaining unperformed - that (per Lord Diplock) '(a) there is substituted by implication of law for the primary obligations of the party in default which remain unperformed a secondary obligation to pay money compensation to the other party for the loss sustained by him in consequence of their non-performance in the future and (b) the unperformed primary obligations of that other party are discharged.'

Given Diplock's statement of the position, may be to describe the agreement as 'terminated' following the events we are describing is, to adopt the words of Lord Porter, '.. to convey the truth with sufficient accuracy.'

 

FURTER.

I am yet to be persuaded that in the context of a regulated consumer credit agreement and the receipt of an express notice or activity on the part of the creditor consistent with termination, that the agreement does not terminate unless and until the debtor signifies by word or deed that he accepts termination. The damned notice of termination says what it says.

 

For sure in those cases where the termination amounts to the anticipatory breach of the agreement by one of the parties to that agreement the law says the innocent party should elect either to accept the termination or inform the terminating party that he requires them to perform their obligations owing under the agreement. But we're not concerned with an anticipatory breach by the creditor. It's not as if the creditor having agreed to give credit has then decided not to loan after all. What the creditor is doing is calling in the loan he has already made ahead of the time when it would ordinarily have been repaid.

 

But in a regulated consumer credit agreement, what in reality can the court genuinely expect the innocent, ordinary and unsophisticated debtor to a consumer credit agreement, who is strapped for cash, do in response to the demands of the creditor? Write a letter saying 'I accept your repudiatory breach of contract'?. Of course not. Well I say of course not. That is a ludicrous expectation to hold. Was the Court of Appeal ever concerned to ascertain in Woodchester v Swayne & Co that Swayne had accepted Woodchester's termination on the back of their ineffective DN? Mais non. Swayne & Co had done nothing. Swayne & Co were a firm of solicitors in Cardiff for crissake. Yet they still were treated to the benefits of the Act as one intended for the protection of consumers. Swayne were, according to claue 9.1 of the terms of the agreement between Woodchester and Swayne, in repudiatory breach of contract, entitling Woodchester to immediately terminate the agreement. But all the same, Kennedy LJ held that the provisions of section 87 dictated what Woodchester were required to do in order for Woodchester to become entitled to claim early payment and demand the return of the photocopier let on hire under the agreement. This was regardless of what the agreement said.

 

Indeed in the context of activity, if Swayne & Co had paid some money to Woodchester they would have done themselves a favour because those payments would have been applied to the credit of the arrears.

 

I appreciate that counsel for banks are currently advancing that the absence of some clear acceptance on the part of the debtor operates to negate the meaning and intent of the creditor's express termination. The latest clever arguments seem to be that a DN is not required at all where the agreement has no fixed duration. But that's counsel pushing at the boundaries and thinking out the box in a novel way. All good lawyers do that. They invent and shape their arguments to distinguish their case from those which suggest they're on a loser so as to suit the requirements of their client. They have no idea as they're inventing and shaping that the argument they've conjured will succeed. But they sigh with relief when they appreciate their opponent is a LiP.

 

I do not buy in to the notion that unless the debtor is active or inactive in a way somewhat different to the way he was active or inactive prior to the termination, that the agreement has endured despite the delivery of an express notice of termination, or despite activity on the part of the creditor which is in keeping with the creditor having terminated the agreement. Remember this : when Woodchester v Swayne was first decided, before it got to the Court of Appeal, Assistant Recorder Higginbottom found for the creditor on the basis that

 

"A default notice served under Section 87 and Section 88 is not rendered defective merely because the action indicated as required to be taken to remedy the breach is in fact over and above the action necessary to remedy that breach."

 

The Assistant Recorder did not add 'and because the debtor had failed to serve a notice of acceptance of termination or had conducted itself in a way different to the way it had conducted itself before termination or before the creditor behaved as if the creditor had terminated.'

 

Kennedy regarded the Assistant Recorder's judgment 'as a model of clarity'. But he still found the decision was wrong. He held quite the reverse to the Assistant Recorder. He held the DN was rendered defective because the action indicated as required to be taken to remedy the breach was in fact over and above the action necessary to remedy that breach. He did not qualify that view by saying it was reached owing to the activity or inactivity of the debtor or that his view would have been different depending on what activity or inactivity there may have been on the part of Swayne & Co. As we know, because Swayne got hit with a judgment for the actual arrears, Swayne did nothing.

 

Woodchester v Swayne is still good law. Swayne & Co did the right thing. They were well placed to do the right thing. They were a firm of lawyers. The right thing they did was to appeal the decision. The result speaks for itself.

 

x20

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Allthough my case was dismissed yesterday, i did have a dodgy DN also a Dodgy Notice of Assignment. But i never got to use it as i said my case was chucked out owing Howard Cohen not sending in the original Documents on the day.

 

Hi Gazza, was the original document that was missing, the agreement, meaning that the Judge was insisting on seeing the original?

 

But in my case my Default notice for example was issued on the 9th which was a friday and remedy date the 26th and was posted second class.

First postal day for that would of been the 12th allowing 4 working days, which would of come to the 16th. So they never left 14 clear days to remedy the breach.

 

The best part in my case is they sold it to CL Finance on the 22nd, defecting the Default notice once and for all.

But i must stress as to what the Judge said to me yesterday, they need the complete accounts from that account and a breakdown to get to the figure in both the DN and Notice of assignment.

 

So not only they breached both legal forms, MBNA even breached the Data protection act for allowing a third party to look at my data 4 days before they should have.

 

Hope this helps

 

 

Gaz

Vint

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Sorry pinky, just realised what thread I'm on. I won't go off topic again!:oops::-D:-D:-D:-D

 

I think we sometimes mix up the specific act of parliament, CCA1974 and contract law. I do not think that it should be necessary to accept the unlawful rescinding of the agreement, as that is covered in the act and the consequenses of such actions, but belt and braces and recent comments by Judges, makes it a good idea. By an act of acceptance, it does put an end to that matter. If a Judge then asks how you accepted the unlawful rescission, you can at least say, by letter on thexxxxxxx, rather than, by scratching my bum m'lord.

 

It has been the topic of a lot of debate on this forum, so it obviously has been a problem in the past, but you are right, you should not need to. I have done it twice to each creditor, worked into other letters. 1st saying "I have accepted......." 2nd saying " I have previously accepted........", just to be sure.

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well they should not record a default if they have not issued a DN since the DN gives you 14 days to rectify the alleged breach and if you do rectify the breach - it is as if the breach never occurred.

 

clearly if they adversly mark your file before you have had this opportunity then your right to have the breach considered a non event, by complying with a default notice is not met.

 

 

You therefore have a claim against them for defaming your creditworthiness- if you subsequently apply for and are refused credit, or other loans are called in as a result of this bad mark your claim against them would be substantial. You could even be refused certain jobs with such a mark on your credit files

 

it is normal for a default to signify that the agreement is terminated (some banks actually usefully write and confirm this)

 

so they can be said to have unlawfully rescinded the agreement - in which case they cannot then go back and issue a DN

 

i don't know how much you owe them but i would be inclined to advise them that they have unlawfully rescinded the agreement by their actions and suggest they remove the offending entry PDQ. and advise you what they intend to do by way of compensation to you

Sorry dd, should have read to the end of the thread.

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i was just wondering if someone familiar with legalities of DN's could take a look at this and thell me what they think. I think its toilet paper.

 

Thanks

Suzie

Hi Suzie,

 

To be valid, having been sent on the 3rd September, the date to rectify by will be the 22nd September if sent first class, 24th September if sent second class or UKmail. Did you keep the envelope?

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Hi All, Sorry to hihack this excellent thread, but with so much usefull info on Default Notices, I thought it would help if someone could answer this question on this thread?

 

I am sure I have read that the "14 days to remedy" used to be only 7 days? When did this change and did the 2 or 4 days allowed for posting exist?

 

Thanks

October 2006

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Hi Vint,

 

yes I did keep envelope. The date on envelope was same as on DN 3rd Sept. It says that the breach must be remedied BEFORE 14th Sept to they quite clearly have not allowed enough time. I was wondering if anyone could spot anything else wrong with it. I am not experienced in this so like majority of population dont have a clue when being ripped off.

 

Suzie

Hi suzie,

 

It's a bit too small to read but there are sections that need to be in bold print and underlined. They also need to state the breach and the amount to rectify the breach. This amount must not be the full amount nor must it contain charges.

 

Have they terminated the agreement yet?

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