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Bank account debts/overdrafts statute barred


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Sorry if this is Groundhog day for people but I have recently had a letter from Clownells blah blah, the alleged debt is from 1999-2000 and hence statute barred. Because of the persistent nature of clownells, I presume I would skip the request for a CCA as it was a bank account. am I correct?

I will doff my hat for the first person to confirm my thinking.

 

Many thanks

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Personally, having been dealing with a similar situation today (debt dating back to 97/98 in my case, although not a bank account)

 

I took the decision to try and deal with it as statute barred first, on the basis I could always do a CCA request later if needbe, but didn't want to do the CCA first in case it turned out I'd had correspondance with them less than 6 years ago (was pretty certain I hadn't heard from them in that time, but not 100% certain). I felt my CCA request might then be perceived to extend the statutory period for a further 6 years if that had been the case.

 

Not sure if my reasoning was correct, but it made sense to me and seems to have had the desired effect (they've admitted the debt is indeed statute barred, although currently they're saying they still intend to chase it!!!)

 

Hope this helps...

Martin

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Don't mess about, simply send them a Statute Barred letter and make them prove otherwise.

Lowells have recently "purchased" a whole load of old debts and are pushing for enforcement.

 

There is a template letter to be found here: http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/general-debt-issues/20758-creditors-dcas-letter-templates.html

Letter M.

Is it important to start the letter:

I DO NOT ACKNOWLEDGE ANY DEBT TO YOUR COMPANY in Big Bold letters.

Be VERY careful whose advice you listen too

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