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    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
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      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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N55 Notice of application for attachment of earnings order, Help Pretty Please.


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Cliff notes version leading to my question

I received a CCJ for a credit card debt which had been sold to a firm called FV-1, INC, The Corporation Trust Company. these are the claimant's who acquired the CCJ against me a year ago. I didn't defend it as I new nothing then and hadn't discovered CAG.

 

The claim, CCJ was for only a small part of the debt £315.00 which they sated on the claim form was for part of a debt assigned to them.

I have since found out from CAG that this is actually unlawful for them to do so,this is set out in section35 of the County Courts Act 1984 which can be found here. County Courts Act 1984 (c. 2:cool: - Statute Law Database

 

I sent I & E to them as soon as I received the claim with an offer to pay sent it to FV-1 as that is who it said to send it to on the claim form. I heard nothing from them, but then received the CCJ and it was to pay forthwith.

I wrote to the court explaining every thing as soon as I received the CCJ and enclosed my I & E along with wage slip. The court replied saying I had to pay a fee to get the CCJ amount set to installments, I had been told that if I responded with in 14 days there was no fee. Any way obviously this info was wrong.

I never paid fee for redetermination.

I never heard a thing for a whole year until last Thurs. when I received a N55

This leads me to my main question..............

I have read loads of times on here that a spouse is not liable for the others consumer debt. This debt is soley mine and has nothing to do with my husband.

I would like to get this debt set to an affordable installment and to ask that they suspend the order and give me a chance to pay rather than taking it from my wages, there is a tiny space on the form to do this.

This is what i am unsure of.................

I have to get this form posted to court this Monday to be on the safe side.

It asks for my I & E and a recent wage slip.

I only work part time and my hubby works full time, we have two children,

If my hubby is not liable to pay my debt then do I just write down what I pay for and what I earn and make an offer of payment, and then write that my hubby pays for all the other expenses or do I have to include his income along with his outgoings and send a wage slip of his too.

ON THE FORM IT ASKS FOR " MY HUSBAND OR WIFES USUAL TAKE HOME PAY"

 

I hope I have explained OK, I really don't know what way to fill this in as I have tried to explain above.

Any thoughts, help would be really appreciated.

cheers Q., x

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I think (and I'm happy to be corrected) that if the credit card was applied for solely in your name and issued based solely on your income then I would say that only your income and expenditure should be considered when asking for payment terms.

 

It could be viewed that the part of the form asking for husband or wife's income should only be completed where there is a joint debt.

 

As you say, there is only a small box on the form to put your reason for asking for suspension - however, if you need to explain in more detail (i.e. it would be detrimental to your employment status, or that you had already offered a an installment offer but was ignored) then you should write in the box "please see affixed sheet" then you need to write the claim number and your name at the top of the sheet and affix it to the form. Don't forget to keep a copy of everything and send by recorded or special delivery.

 

There is of course the possibility of having the CCJ set aside due to the fact that the claim was issued for only part of the claim - this would involve a fee of £75.00 and is applied for on a different form. However, the other way of looking at it is this - if you pay the £315 then no-one can come back to you for the remainder as the claim will have been satisfied. How much is the whole debt?

 

Ell-enn

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Firstly Ellen you are so kind to reply sp speedily, many many thanks.

 

I actually was givren the card years back when I didn't even work and it was only in my name my hubby didn't know I was applying for it. I applied in bank as I kept going in to pay an argos card balance and the cashiers kept saying take our card and tranfer balance it will be cheeper. so hubby certainly wasn't aware until I told him I had one.

I suppose they linked me with my hubby and he was working and still is.

 

I did think perhaps the part which says husbands or wifes income could just be for joint claims.

 

I wondered weather it would be best to include hubbies income and expenses but send no wage slip of his and write that this is where our money goes and as this debt is just mine my husband did not want me sending his wage slip but out of our combined surplus I will offer part of it, as my hubby isn't liable for my debt, OR to just do as previously stated and not include hubby for same reason and say this is where my income goes and offer £ 10.00 a month, I don't earn much, it all goes on living exspenses any way. If I did include hubbies wage then it would probably end up as a $10 :wink: a month offer any way, and that is us being generous.

 

The debt on the card was a couple of thousand so yes, if I get this paid then the CCJ will be satisfied, so if they came back for more it would be a case of "res judicata". Bryan carter did the same with a debt of my hubbies, we paid this to bailiffs as we again couldn't affortd the £50 a month set by court, then received confirmation that the CCj was Satisfied, Carter then asked for the balance remaining, We said the CCJ has been paid, You are not getting any more and never heard another thing. that was over a year ago now.

This company seem to run in a similar way to Bryan Carter sols.

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OK, if you would only end up with £10 surplus to offer by taking joint income into consideration then you will be at no disadvantage by doing that. You should only send in your wage slip - after all it's only your debt.

Keep the information on the sheet you are attaching concise and to the point, no need to mention that your husband doesn't want his wage slip sent in.

 

When you fill in the income and expenditure part of the form, make sure the £10 per month you are offering is what is all that is left over after everything else has been paid. Take a photocopy of all of it before sending in to court.

 

Ell

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Yes Ell_en,

I think that would be the best as if I left out my hubbies wages it would look like I was trying to hide something. I really just want this payment accepted and to pay it.

I will keep the info to the point, they don't want my life story i know.

Do you have any idea if these forms once completed are successful?

 

 

i cannot find any cases the same as mine where any one has just sent off there income and not included there spouses. I've searched this forum but can't find any account of this.

 

Cheers Q.x.

 

Thanks for your message Ell-enn. you are a star.

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Hi there, thanks

My main concern is to get this CCj paid off by installments, as they have only sued for part of the debt, once this is satisfied I could then fight them off hopefully if they tried to get the rest.

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Just Noticed this N55 form says In the Expenses column Do not include any payments made by other members of the household out of their own income.

I understand this to mean only include what expenses I pay from my income.

I think I'll have to ring the court about this.

I'll post back what the court says as it may help others who are in the same boat as me.

It would certainly be easier for me if I did only have to include my income and outgoings.

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Can some one have a look at this post please and tell me what they think?

 

I phoned the court the girl didn't have a clue.

She read the form and then said do as it says on the form, which is .........

Include the spouses income as it asks you to and money anyone else contributes to the household, if applicable,

then in the expenses part only put my expenses down and then I could just write that all other expenses that I don't pay for are paid by my husband out of his income.

 

I do not include hubbies wage slip.

I must admit my OH does not want his details recorded on this form as it is not his debt.

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What about electricity and gas? Typically these would be around £100 per month.

Also what about children's school trips etc.

What about TV licence?

What about car expenses, MOT, Insurance, Tax?

If no car then what about transport expenses?

Edited by palomino

I really do appreciate all those 'thank you' emails - I'm glad I've been able to help. Apologies if I haven't acknowledged all of them.

You can also ding my gong if you prefer. :)

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You could also look at this http://www.nationaldebtline.co.uk/england_wales/pdf/personal-budget-sheet/pbs-monthly.pdf.

 

This gives you a template to complete which ensures you don't miss anything.

I really do appreciate all those 'thank you' emails - I'm glad I've been able to help. Apologies if I haven't acknowledged all of them.

You can also ding my gong if you prefer. :)

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Hi Palomino,

Yes I have looked at the link, thanks

These are my expenses from my wages, child benifit and child tax credit, these two benefits I collect and pay out as our living expenses.

My husbands expenses are not included as this CCJ debt is mine, It is not my husbands debt.

They want me to list my expenses from my income.

The things you mention are what my husband pays which are why they are not included.

I have heard the court is strict, which is why i would love comments from others before sending this form off.

Thanks

CAN ANYONE COMMENT ON MY POST #9 PLEASE, THAnks

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  • 4 weeks later...

Just to update. might be helpful to someone wondering the same things as i was.........

I did fill the N56 out correctly.

It did mean my hubbys wage my wage & benifits, (if any)

BUT I only had to list expenses what I paid out for, I sent a covering note saying this is where my money goes and all other household expenses that I haven't listed is because my hubby pays them.

I asked for order to be suspended and it came back as 'agreed to suspend the AOE's' and I am 'ordered to pay £5. a month'.

Great result and all I have to do now is contact the DCA so i can set up a standing order so that they can't turn round and say they haven't received my posted payment.

They could appeal against this order within 16 days but I can't see the point as I only work 14 hrs a week, so earn a small wage and you "can't get the knickers of a bare arse" :wink::lol: :grin:

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ARE ther any charges on the credit card that you can reclaim?

 

Probably not many, I'm not really bothered about trying to re claim charges as they have sued for only a minute part of the debt. It will take me a few years to pay this CCJ at £5. a month, even if they applied to raise the monthly payments at a later stage they won't get much of a result. After this has been satisfied they will have to sue me again, in which case it will be defended as outlined in my first post.

I will be sending a CCA request to them though....;) it might prove to be fruitful.

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