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    • I did not receive a notice via post but in my claim status it shows my claim was transferred to a court I requested in my DQ, as it is closer to me.    Defense I filed:  1.       The Defendant contends that the particulars of claim are vague and generic in nature. The Defendant accordingly sets out its case below and relies on CPR r 16.5 (3) in relation to any particular allegation to which a specific response has not been made. 2.       The defendant paid the lead tenant a fixed sum monthly bill without fail for the extent of the rental period of the accommodation their contract was associated with who was responsible to make payments to the claimant, ending in June 2023. 3.       After moving out, a month later, the claimant wrote to state that an outstanding sum existed. Further stating, as one of the 10 tenants at the time, I now owed them the full sum instead of my 1/10 proportion of said debt, as 10 students were at the dwelling. They also intimated that they were legally allowed to charge me the full sum if the other renters were not to pay their share under some equal and joint severity rule. 4.       Despite sending numerous requests prior to the court claim being raised for copies of said bills for said utilities covered by the agreement, the claimant failed to send any clear bills. This included a CPR 31.14 on xx/xx/xxxx sent via post. 5.       The defendants stress that they acted in good faith to settle the outstanding balance, as evidenced by the confirmation received from the claimant.  Any subsequent demands for additional payments are unwarranted and contradict the claimant's previous acknowledgment of settlement. 6.       Pursuant to OFGEM code of back billing rules the alleged charges relate to charges which have not been billed correctly by Co-operative Energy and are therefore prevented from charging. With the court’s permission the Claimant is put to strict proof to: - a) show and disclose how the Defendant has entered into an agreement. b) show and disclose how the Claimant has reached the amount claimed. c) show how the Claimant has the legal right, either under statute or equity to issue a claim. 7.As per Civil Procedure Rule 16.5 (4) it is expected that the Claimant prove the allegation                  that the money is owed. 8.It is therefore denied that the defendant is indebted to the claimant as alleged or at all.
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Quick question on defaults


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I recently made a request to AA financial services who have registered a default on my file to send me copies of the agreement and default notices etc.

 

I sent this on the 7th of February, and have received a letter dated the 13th of march which encloses the requested data. Are they too late to do this?

 

Assuming not, the two copies i have been sent, whilst having been signed, only have a typed date on them, and no stamp to validate this as i would expect, is this normal procedure or can i claim this isnt sufficient?

 

Also, the two default notice letters i have received are dated the 16/04/2005 and 24/06/05, the latter saying i have to pay £101.75 by the 04/07/2005. On my Credit report i have 'defaulted on' 28/02/2006. Does this sound right? Should the notice not be registered on the 04/07/2005 if the payment didnt reach them.

 

Unfortunately i dont have bank statements going far enough back at present to check if i sent 101.75 to them by the 04/07/2005, but this is in hand.

 

Any thoughts welcome

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I recently made a request to AA financial services who have registered a default on my file to send me copies of the agreement and default notices etc.

 

I sent this on the 7th of February, and have received a letter dated the 13th of march which encloses the requested data. Are they too late to do this?

 

Assuming not, the two copies i have been sent, whilst having been signed, only have a typed date on them, and no stamp to validate this as i would expect, is this normal procedure or can i claim this isnt sufficient?

 

Also, the two default notice letters i have received are dated the 16/04/2005 and 24/06/05, the latter saying i have to pay £101.75 by the 04/07/2005. On my Credit report i have 'defaulted on' 28/02/2006. Does this sound right? Should the notice not be registered on the 04/07/2005 if the payment didnt reach them.

 

Unfortunately i dont have bank statements going far enough back at present to check if i sent 101.75 to them by the 04/07/2005, but this is in hand.

 

Any thoughts welcome

 

No,, They are within the prescribed time limit :mad:

Just hate every DCA out there

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How can they Be if they stated that he had until the 4th July?????

 

If they stated that he had until that date to pay then they should have waited until then.

 

Surely they are in some kind of breach & the whole thing should be thrown out?????

 

I like to think that anyway as Im in a similar situation myself.

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How can they Be if they stated that he had until the 4th July?????

 

If they stated that he had until that date to pay then they should have waited until then.

 

Surely they are in some kind of breach & the whole thing should be thrown out?????

 

I like to think that anyway as Im in a similar situation myself.

 

I was making a point re their reply to the CCA request...and look at the years that is being talked about 05 and 06. If someone's in default (and remains so) then they register the default when they choose to.

Just hate every DCA out there

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I understand that they are entitled to register the default on my report whenever they deem fit, however im just slightly concerned that the notice dates and default notice date on file are quite different. There are a good few months in there, surely they should supply an accurate 'default date'. Have i anything to go on or should i just accept that this one will stay?

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I understand that they are entitled to register the default on my report whenever they deem fit, however im just slightly concerned that the notice dates and default notice date on file are quite different. There are a good few months in there, surely they should supply an accurate 'default date'. Have i anything to go on or should i just accept that this one will stay?

 

Defaults are hard enough to get removed when they've no right to be there, let alone when there's a good reason. IMO it's just one you have to swallow but please feel free to get advice from anyone who knows better than I :)

Just hate every DCA out there

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I have a feeling you're right about that.

 

Has anybody ever had a positive outcome from a 'nice' letter asking for it to be removed as a goodwill gesture due to the fact the balance was paid in full?

 

Im doubting it but thinking about giving it a try.

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I have a feeling you're right about that.

 

Has anybody ever had a positive outcome from a 'nice' letter asking for it to be removed as a goodwill gesture due to the fact the balance was paid in full?

 

Im doubting it but thinking about giving it a try.

 

Your best bet would be to go to the CRA's ..

Just hate every DCA out there

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There is a very informative website here: Remove Default Notices on a Credit File - We show you how

 

Have a look, it may be of help.....

 

Just for your own info Sling- That link is very old hat and even the banks and DCA's have cottoned on to it. It might work in one or two incidences, but not in this particular case, besides there's much better ways of getting defaults removed if they shouldn't be there- read around the site a bit more and you'll see what I mean. The default is there because it should be, not because some DCA feels like putting it there. It's very unfortunate and a real pain in the rear but I don't think there's a lot can be done in this case, more's the pity :(

Just hate every DCA out there

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