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    • Oh I see! thats confusing, for some reason the terms and conditions that Evri posted in that threads witness statement are slightly different than the t&cs on packlinks website. Their one says enter into a contract with the transport agency, but the website one says enter into a contract with paclink. via website: (c) Each User will enter into a contract with Packlink for the delivery of its Goods through the chosen Transport Agency. via evri witness statement in that thread: (c) Each User shall then enter into its own contract with the chosen Transport Agency. Packlink does not have any control over, and disclaims all liability that may arise in contracts between a User and a Transport Agency I read your post at #251, so I should use the second one (and changing the screenshot in the court bundle), since I am saying I have a contract with Evri? Is that correct EDIT: Oh I understand the rest of your conversation. you're saying if I was to do this i would have to fully adjust my ws to use the consumer rights act instead of rights of third parties. In that case should I just edit the terms and stick with the third parties plan?. And potentially if needed just bring up the CRA in the hearing, as you guys did in that thread  
    • First, those are the wrong terms,  read posts 240-250 of the thread ive linked to Second donough v stevenson should be more expanded. You should make refernece to the three fold duty of care test as well. Use below as guidance: The Defendant failed its duty of care to the Claimant. As found in Donoghue v Stevenson negligence is distinct and separate to any breach of contract. Furthermore, as held in the same case there need not be a contract between the Claimant and the Defendant for a duty to be established, which in the case of the Claimant on this occasion is the Defendant’s duty of care to the Claimant’s parcel whilst it is in their possession. By losing the Claimant’s parcel the Defendant has acted negligently and breached this duty of care. As such the Claimant avers that even if it is found that the Defendant not be liable in other ways, by means of breach of contract, should the court find there is no contract between Claimant and Defendant, the Claimant would still have rise to a claim on the grounds of the Defendant’s negligence and breach of duty of care to his parcel whilst it was in the Defendant’s possession, as there need not be a contract to give rise to a claim for breach of duty of care.  The court’s attention is further drawn to Caparo Industries plc v Dickman (1990), 2 AC 605 in which a three fold test was used to determine if a duty of care existed. The test required that: (i) Harm must be a reasonably foreseeable result of the defendant’s conduct; (ii) A relationship of proximity must exist and (iii) It must be fair, just and reasonable to impose liability.  
    • Thank you. here's the changes I made 1) removed indexed statement of truth 2) added donough v Stevenson in paragraph 40, just under the Supply of Goods and Services Act 1982 paragraph about reasonable care and skill. i'm assuming this is a good place for it? 3) reworded paragraph 16 (now paragraph 12), and moved the t&cs paragraphs below it then. unless I understood you wrong it seems to fit well. or did you want me to remove the t&cs paragraphs entirely? attached is the updated draft, and thanks again for the help. WS and court bundle-1 fourth draft redacted.pdf
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      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
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      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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Dog on lead bit another dog not on a lead


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My wife took our Labrador out for a walk on the beach. He was on his lead. Another dog came towards my wife, and because my wife was walking on seaweed she slipped when he pulled. She did not let go of the lead. The two dogs had a coming together, which resulted in the other dog getting bitten. The owner has now present me with a bill. While I agree that my dog was the cause of the injury, he was at all time on the end of short lead (3 foot long) which my wife still had hold of, whilst the other dog was running free. Why should I be responsible for the other owner not having his dog under control?

How do I respond to his bill?

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If your dog bit the other, it makes no odds that it was on a lead. Under control means on a leash and muzzled.

 

 

What injuries did the other dog sustain? Is there any proof?

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

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The proof is only the vets bill. If one takes your version of Under control as being on a lead and muzzled, why do the police or dog wardens not take action against every dog owner who fails to muzzle their dog? And why is a dog on a lead not considered more 'under control' than one running free?

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If a dog bites another dog , then by definition it was not under control. Im a dog owner myself and the only reason I don't use a muzzle is because my collie is only a year old and was brought up both before and after I rescued it, around kids and plenty of other dogs so he knows how to behave.

 

The bad part about your predicament is that because your dog did bite another then it would be considered 'not under the owners control'.

 

Imagine if your dog had bitten a person, you could be looking at losing your dog.

 

 

Can I ask a question?

 

What was the other dog doing to cause your dog to attack? Im thinking you could use mitigating circumstances and come to a compromise.

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

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Check on the local legislation and whether the dog should have been on a lead. If so, tell the other owner to take a hike. Your dog was under control and the other dog was not and probably was the instigator. If the other dog had been on a lead, the incident would not have happened.

If it was our dog which was on a lead regardless or not whether there is legislation there is no ways we would pay because as far as we are concerned our dog was under control and defending itself.

If it was a human and the human got bitten, then the human would be at fault as they should not have approached a strange dog without the owner's permission and tried to pet it or similar!

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Renegadeimp

The other dog came to sniff bits, I suspect, but as my wife was on the ground, having slipped on wet seaweed, possibly our dog went into protection mode.

 

Having spoken to the local police dog handler, his view was, 'Your dog on lead, other dog loose, responsibility for control lies with other dog owner, therefore they will be very lucky to get judgement in Small claims court.'

 

Happy to compromise, I pays for cleaning wifes clothes because of smelly seaweed, and compensation for loss of dignity, and he pays his own vets bill, and puts his dog on a lead if it will not obey his commands!

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Ahh gotcha brian. The problem you will have now is actually proving it. It doesnt matter what the police officer thinks, in court it is the evidence that is presented before the judge. I would suggest some kind of mediation and see how that goes. If you are willing to try mediation ( means you accept partial fault, but not complete and still want to find a favourable outcome) then courts look more favourably on it as it is achieved without a CCJ etc.

 

Can i ask what type of dogs were involved?

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

:D

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problem is the animals act of 1971 is a bit vague as to what is "damage" and forseeable. The damage in that legislation is for dogs biting humans, not other dogs and that seems to recognise that dogs do bite so it is down to what is forseeable. Is the breed of the dog classified as dangerous? does the dog have a history of biting? Is the use of a lead properly "restraint"? Now, the last bit is really the nub of the matter as it can be argued that any action that allows a dog to bite anything is not proper restraint so the liklihood of a court deciding one way or the other is akin to tossing a coin.

A judge may well decide that dogs biting other dogs is outside the legislation so without previous history there is no case to answer or they may decide that you fall foul of the restraint bit that catches just about any situation if interpreted that way.

Do you have leagl cover on your house/pet insurance? Be worth checking out before taking a decision to pay or defend. Personally I would suggest that the owner of the bitten dog has the most to lose by going to court so perhaps an offer of 50% of the bill without accepting liability might end the matter.

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Was the other dog aggressive in anyway or just coming to say 'hello' ?

If your dog was defending itself then, then they should pay their own vets bill.

However IMHO if their was no aggression by the other dog and just being a dog, then you should pay, irrespective of any other circumstances.

If as you say your dogs behaviour was caused by your wife slipping over, then why should the other owner have to pay for that ( cause and effect ). just one of those things that happen.

I don't think any body will label your dog as aggressive because of this.

Agree with ericsb and maybe offer 50%.

Seen it all before a dog comes up to have a 'sniff' ( on or off the lead ) all ok for a few seconds then one has a go and bites the other! aggression! so the aggressor should pay.

Just because a dog is on a lead does not ensure control.

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