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    • I have recently found myself in financial difficulties and with the help of forum members in another thread regarding this, I think I can get myself sorted. My query here is how to deal with a Cifas marker that has been logged against me by one of my creditors for "evasion of payment". Admittedly yes I did get a £5000 loan with them and have not paid any payment but at the start of the year, which is when the loan landed, I realised I was going to be struggling to repay that and other debts and I contacted MCB to ask if there was any way I could extend the loan from 24 months to 36 months. I explained my situation and that I was going with a DMP and asked them if they could help me with this. They did not reply. I then emailed them again a month later explaining that my DMP was going ahead and could they confirm that the direct debit was indeed cancelled. Again, they did not reply. The DMP fell apart and so did everything else thereafter. My bank withdrew my overdraft and said I could not stay with them (I thought initially that it was because of the DMP) so I opened another account (Starling) and set up all my direct debits etc with the new bank. A month into being with the new bank, they contacted me and said they were closing my account in three months. So I started applying for other basic accounts and every single one of them either refused or revoked.  Through the help in the other thread, I requested a SAR from Cifas and discovered that I have this marker against my name for "evasion of payment". I have logged a complaint with MCB on the advice of other forum members, but my query really is do you think the marker is fair given that I did ask them for help and I did explain that I was going to be struggling financially to repay the loan over the original two years, and is there any way that I can get it removed? I fully admit that I have yet to make a payment to them and I suppose in my naivety and panic I thought if I emailed them early on they could extend the loan and help me out, but they didn't even reply  I did manage to open an account with Monzo before the marker was in place, but I am very concerned that if Monzo do what Starling did, I will have no bank account to pay my bills or get my wages paid into.  Realistically based on the information I have given here, what do you think my chances are of getting this marker removed? Any help/advice on this would be greatly appreciated x
    • Thank you dx, that is what I intend to do now. I have gone through all the SAR documents, a lot of which I am seeing for the first time! As per my previous post #116 letters and statements alleged to have been sent to me, as recorded on their system notes I have not received. Letters I have sent requesting information and account statements have not been recorded as being received by them, all were sent either by Recorded or Special Delivery. I have all the proof you menrtioned from my files for payments and from their SAR info for fees added. Thanks t
    • In my experience (not with car payments) but with many other things, my partner has been ill and signed off in the past and we have been unable to meet various commitments.  Naturally if you ring the call centre they are going to fob you off and tell you you must pay, that's why that never ever works. I would obtain a note from her GP listing all her health issues plus medications plus side effects, then write to the finance company with a copy of it, explaining the situation, as you have here, asking for a payment holiday. Perhaps mention that the car is very much needed for hospital appointments etc. It's likely the finance company would rather you pay till term end than, chase you for money they will never see, and sell the car at auction for a loss,  You can search some of my threads going back years, advising people to do this for Council Tax, Tax Credits, HMRC, Even a solicitors company and it always works, because contrary to popular belief people are reasonable.
    • Sorry, I haven't ever seen one of these agreements. Read it all and look out for anything that says when she can withdraw and when she is committed to go ahead. If it isn't clear she may need to call the housing provider and simply say what you posted here, she doesn't want to go ahead and how does she withdraw her swap application?
    • Thank you! Your head is like a power bank of knowledge.  Her health issues are short term, due to a relationship breakdown she took it pretty hard and has been signed off work on medication for 3 months. She only started her job in February 24 so does not qualify for any occupational sick benefits, which is where the ssp only comes in. (You will see me posting a few things over the coming days, whilst I try and sort some things for her)  I sat with her last night relaying all this back and she does want to work out a plan, she was ready to propose £100 for the next 3 months and then an additional £70 per month onto of her contractual to "catch up" but Money247 rejecting the payment holiday and demanding £200 thew her, which is why I came on here.   
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      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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From reading Some of the new bits and bobs being quoted about the changes, I can see the regulations being pushed back a year or two again

 

I don't think they will, they are clearly being rushed through without clear thought following a lot of pressure from MP's, media etc etc.

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The Stanford and Green thread is indicative of what may well be a regular occurrence when they bulldoze this dogs vomit of a bill into operation.

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The bailiff: A 12th Century solution re-branded as Enforcement Agents for the 21st Century to seize and sell debtors goods as before Oh so Dickensian!

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The Stanford and Green thread is indicative of what may well be a regular occurrence when they bulldoze this dogs vomit of a bill into operation.

 

Again I would argue that impounding has not successfully been completed.That is enough IMo to dispute the levy in the Stanford & Green thread-As I've said previously,the TC&E Act part 3 which will also come into force next year,clearly states what is expected in order to constitute a valid levy.A walking possession must be an agreement that is entered into by both sides,a bailiff cannot eimply slap a levy on a vehicle & then post paperwork through the letterbox.I addition,the debtor is required to acknowledge that the goods are now in control of the enforcement agent.

 

I believe an unsigned walking possession is not worth the paper it is printed on-The difference at present is that bailiffs will argue differently-Next year,they will no longer be able to do so as legislation on this matter is more transparent.

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Again I would argue that impounding has not successfully been completed.That is enough IMo to dispute the levy in the Stanford & Green thread-As I've said previously,the TC&E Act part 3 which will also come into force next year,clearly states what is expected in order to constitute a valid levy.A walking possession must be an agreement that is entered into by both sides,a bailiff cannot eimply slap a levy on a vehicle & then post paperwork through the letterbox.I addition,the debtor is required to acknowledge that the goods are now in control of the enforcement agent.

 

I believe an unsigned walking possession is not worth the paper it is printed on-The difference at present is that bailiffs will argue differently-Next year,they will no longer be able to do so as legislation on this matter is more transparent.

 

A walking possession agreement does not need to be signed for a valid seizure to have taken place (although the seizure you refer to could be invalid for other reasons).

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A walking possession agreement does not need to be signed for a valid seizure to have taken place (although the seizure you refer to could be invalid for other reasons).

 

I agree that this is currently the position, is Mark saying that this will change when the new relations come in ?

 

If so is there a link to the relevant legislation Mark ?

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It is my understanding that the same will apply. It is only right as it is not always possible to get a signed walking possession agreement.

 

I think Mark1960 is reading to many old John Kruse books...

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A walking possession agreement does not need to be signed for a valid seizure to have taken place (although the seizure you refer to could be invalid for other reasons).

 

I think the operative word in your sentence is "agreement".How you expect an agreement to have taken place when one party is not even present is beyond me.That is aside from the fact that in the debtors absence,no act of impounding could have taken place.

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I agree that this is currently the position, is Mark saying that this will change when the new relations come in ?

 

If so is there a link to the relevant legislation Mark ?

 

Have a read of Schedule 12,Section 13 (1)f the TC&E Act 2007 (due to come into force next April)

 

Further clarity can be found in Shedule 12 Section 13 (4) of the same act.

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"Notice of removal of implied rights" ------ laughable :lol:

 

It might well be for a HCEO & we all bow in homage to your undoubted powers.

 

To the mere private bailiff who is acting on behalf of the council & not the courts,they worked on both occasions that I used them.

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It is my understanding that the same will apply. It is only right as it is not always possible to get a signed walking possession agreement.

 

I think Mark1960 is reading to many old John Kruse books...

 

Oh dear-Don't get much right do you?

 

Ever thought of going to the library & digging out a couple of old John Kruse books?

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I think the operative word in your sentence is "agreement".How you expect an agreement to have taken place when one party is not even present is beyond me.

 

As I said earlier, an agreement does not need to be made for the goods to be formally seized. If goods are seized then a walking possession agreement is left at the property which should be signed and returned by the debtor.

 

If you are taking your advice from the forum I suspect then there is little hope for you as the owner/moderator knows little about enforcement and appears, like you, to misinterpret almost every regulation and case law there is.

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As I said earlier, an agreement does not need to be made for the goods to be formally seized. If goods are seized then a walking possession agreement is left at the property which should be signed and returned by the debtor.

 

If you are taking your advice from the forum I suspect then there is little hope for you as the owner/moderator knows little about enforcement and appears, like you, to misinterpret almost every regulation and case law there is.

 

I've got a court case lined up at present.Some of the interpretations of case law & indeed legislation that my council (via their solicitors) have used is laughable-Quality entertainment.So don't start preaching about "interpretating"-Very rich coming from the bailiff who interprets agreements to have been made when one side is not even present.

 

For clarity-An agreement needs to be made by both parties so the levy on the other thread is invalid.Secondly your "understanding" that this (incorrect) notion will continue next year is also incorrect as you will have no doubt have now read the relevant sections of the TC&E Act that I posted.

 

I suggest that you get your own facts right before embarrassing yourself further by criticising other websites.

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Oh dear-Don't get much right do you?

 

Ever thought of going to the library & digging out a couple of old John Kruse books?

 

Have you?

 

It's well known that John Kruse is well informed with it comes to Bailiff law however it is also known that not all the information in his books is 100% correct. A lot of Bailiffs and Bailiff co's rely on John Kruse books for advice inc myself.

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Have you?

 

It's well known that John Kruse is well informed with it comes to Bailiff law however it is also known that not all the information in his books is 100% correct. A lot of Bailiffs and Bailiff co's rely on John Kruse books for advice inc myself.

 

Have I what?

 

Got much right or gone to the library?

 

I've got everything right but I never go to the library.

 

Hope this helps

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Have a read of Schedule 12,Section 13 (1)f the TC&E Act 2007 (due to come into force next April)

 

Further clarity can be found in Shedule 12 Section 13 (4) of the same act.

 

Yes mark spent many ours debating them when they were going through the house in 07, I am just unfamiliar with the section that says that a WPA should be signed by both parties, I was hoping you could point it out.

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Mark with the greatest of respect reading through this thread I think that you are in error.

 

The WPA is not an agreement between the debtor and the bailiff about the seizure of the goods, the bailiff can impound them under the warrant he needs no consent to do this, the agreement states that he will leave them with you on the grounds that you do not interfere with them until the debt is settled.

 

This is the bailiffs decision not the debtors, in this he does not need the consent of the debtor either.

 

The WPA is simply a record.

DO NOT PAY UPFRONT FEES TO COLD CALLERS PROMISING TO WRITE OFF YOUR DEBTS

DO NOT PAY UPFRONT FEES FOR COSTLY TELEPHONE CONSULTATIONS WITH SO CALLED "EXPERTS" THEY INVARIABLY ARE NOTHING OF THE SORT

BEWARE OF QUICK FIX DEBT SOLUTIONS, IF IT LOOKS LIKE IT IS TO GOOD TO BE TRUE IT INVARIABLY IS

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Well why didn't you say so in the first place?

 

If the debtor is not present,the debtor has not entered into a controlled goods agreement has he?

 

Even today,in a debtors absence,impounding has not taken place as the bailiff will not have been able to make his intentions known.

 

OK-I see where you're coming from-You want to nit-pik the validity of a WP where the debtor is present but refuses to sign.If it was that simple to just levy on goods there would have been no need to have required "close possession for the past few centuries would there?With the costs involved in modern day enforcement,close possession is not a valid option therefore it is rarely,if ever undertaken.An unsigned WP (constructive WP) is implied as opposed to agreed.The bailiff must then take regular steps to ensure that the goods remain in the custody of the law or they will soon become abandoned.Again due to costs involved,this is rarely if ever maintained & people like HCEOs merely rely on the general publics ignorance.

 

I would refer you to a quote from Philip Evans who worked for many years at the MOJ & is highly respected in the enforcement sector:

 

"taking" walking possession is always risky and should never be done

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Mark with the greatest of respect reading through this thread I think that you are in error.

 

The WPA is not an agreement between the debtor and the bailiff about the seizure of the goods, the bailiff can impound them under the warrant he needs no consent to do this, the agreement states that he will leave them with you on the grounds that you do not interfere with them until the debt is settled.

 

This is the bailiffs decision not the debtors, in this he does not need the consent of the debtor either.

 

The WPA is simply a record.

 

How can I be in error?

In the case on the other thread,the debtor was not present-The bailiff simply cast a net over all vehicles in the immediate area and posted a worthless piece of paper through the debtors letterbox.No act of impounding took place.Goods are required to be seized & then impounded.Impounding is the "securing of goods" and is usually carried out by the bailiff stating his intent.This cannot be completed if the debtor is not present.

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