If a Secured Loan is 'Sold On' to a DCA, is the Charge on the Property still valid?

[Jools58]

Hello Everyone,

 

I'm new to this site, and would be grateful for any advice regarding the thread subject matter.

My apologies if this has already been dealt with previously: if so, please just point me in the right direction!

 

My ex-wife and I were in serious debt when we spilt up in 2009.

 

I had left the former matrimonial home (although I'm now back in it, on my own (it's a long story!))

and had lost sight of payments to an unsecured loan to Lombard Direct.

 

Although this debt was solely in my ex-wife's name, whilst we were together as a couple it was being paid from a joint babk account.

 

When we separated, my ex-wife stopped making payments towards this loan and, as a result, Lombard took a charge over the property, making it a secured loan.

 

My ex-wife has subsequently decalared herself bankrupt and certain debts have been dealt with as part of her bankruptcy.

 

However, I understand that Lombard, as a secured creditor, chose (or were obliged, I'm not sure)

to wait until the property was sold in order to be repaid by way of any equity in the property.

 

Notwithstanding that the property (which is still in joint name, as is the mortgage (although my ex-wife is no longer contributing))

remains unsold (although I intend to sell it now),

 

I have learned today that Lombard sold the loan to iDEM.

 

Given this, can anyone advise me whether, in selling the loan on, L

ombard have (either deliberately or inadvertently) rendered the loan 'unsecured'

- i.e. is the charge over the property still valid, or has it been invalidated by the act of transferring/selling the loan to iDEM?

 

Any information/advice/help regarding the above would be gratefully received.

 

Many thanks.

 

Jools

[dx100uk]

the buyer assumes all rights inc the charge.

 

however.

unless idem have mentioned the charge

 

i would not tell them

 

dx