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    • @Man in the middle I've been searching the forum and you seem very knowledgeable. Would you mind giving a look at my query please? Thanks in advance!!
    • Thanks for this! I'm still not clear if I'm facing more than 6 points on my license though. Can you explain any further please? When I accept the 2nd speeding ticket, will they just charge me £100 and 3 points, or will they be more severe concenquences since that offense took place the following day of the 1st offense? Similarly, when I accept the 3rd offense, will they look at my record or just charge me with the £100 fine and 3 points?
    • Yes of course. That's why it says cc:: BIg Motoring World at the bottom. Don't imagine that this solves the issue. It doesn't. He not have to force the finance company and big motoring world to accept the rejection to give your money back. I suggest that you get the letter off tomorrow. And let us know what you hear but on Friday you should then send a threat to the finance company.   Have a look what I have said here about your options and read the whole thread as well.  
    • Been perusing the actual figures on the polls above wondering where the '16% claimed for deform comes from? I understand that there are 'weighted' end results based on secret calculations ...   Probably going to repeat this later, but remember that the ukip/brexit/reform/deform party has ALWAYS had poll speculation FAR better than their actual  performance at elections - by large margins. SO: The labor and Tory votes come largely from simply the people who say they will vote for them - sorted Lab 43% Tory 20%, with maybe another small 1-2% coming from the weightings of the 'not sures' Greens largely get what is declared from 'other' , although with another declared green bit from the 'pressed' question   So as the share of the voting displayed in 'other' granted to reform/deform is around 11%, where does the '16% too often being reported come from? Seems that reform has been granted as beneficiary of effectively ALL the don't knows and wont says, who when pressed didn't actually declare for someone else ... effectively adding 40%+ to their reported polling % - rather strange given their consistent under-performance compared to polling - or perhaps that is the cause of the higher rating eh?   Now I admit the possibility (probability?) of wingers being ashamed of declaring their support for the yuckey lemon end of the spectrum ... but surely  that should affect the 'Torys as well? Maybe the statisticians have simply weighted in that deform wingers are simply more likely to lie?   But - without 'weightings' and assumptions that faragits will get everything that isnt declared as a definite and unequivocal 'not that Piers Morgan' - reform is on around 11% it seems.   Add to that the history of polling a lot less than the hype - and the simple fact that faragit wingers seem to be spread across the country (presumably skulking in their moms spare room despite being 45+) and greens and lib dems seem to be community minded - I think two seats will be an epic result for farage. Hardly the opposition - far more raving wingnut party.   and importantly - Has farage got a home in clacton yet?
    • "as I have no tools available to merge documents, unless you can suggest any free ones that will perform offline merges without watermarking" (which you don't) ... but ok please upload the documents and we'll go from there
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    • If you are buying a used car – you need to read this survival guide.
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    • Hello,

      On 15/1/24 booked appointment with Big Motoring World (BMW) to view a mini on 17/1/24 at 8pm at their Enfield dealership.  

      Car was dirty and test drive was two circuits of roundabout on entry to the showroom.  Was p/x my car and rushed by sales exec and a manager into buying the mini and a 3yr warranty that night, sale all wrapped up by 10pm.  They strongly advised me taking warranty out on car that age (2017) and confirmed it was honoured at over 500 UK registered garages.

      The next day, 18/1/24 noticed amber engine warning light on dashboard , immediately phoned BMW aftercare team to ask for it to be investigated asap at nearest garage to me. After 15 mins on hold was told only their 5 service centres across the UK can deal with car issues with earliest date for inspection in March ! Said I’m not happy with that given what sales team advised or driving car. Told an amber warning light only advisory so to drive with caution and call back when light goes red.

      I’m not happy to do this, drive the car or with the after care experience (a sign of further stresses to come) so want a refund and to return the car asap.

      Please can you advise what I need to do today to get this done. 
       

      Many thanks 
      • 81 replies
    • Housing Association property flooding. https://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/topic/438641-housing-association-property-flooding/&do=findComment&comment=5124299
      • 161 replies
    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

      Please note that a recent case against UPS failed on exactly the same issue with the judge held that the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 did not apply.

      We will be getting that transcript very soon. We will look at it and we will understand how the judge made such catastrophic mistakes. It was a very poor judgement.
      We will be recommending that people do include this adverse judgement in their bundle so that when they go to county court the judge will see both sides and see the arguments against this adverse judgement.
      Also, we will be to demonstrate to the judge that we are fair-minded and that we don't mind bringing everything to the attention of the judge even if it is against our own interests.
      This is good ethical practice.

      It would be very nice if the parcel delivery companies – including EVRi – practised this kind of thing as well.

       

      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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Cap1 & CCA return


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A single document may comprise of more than one page therefore, the page headed t&cs refered to on the signature page would be within the document. Is this not correct?

 

 

Regards

 

Whether the terms are part of the same document is a question of fact, so only a Judge can decide if they are/are not part of the same document.

 

For me, if the T&C's are "linked" to the signature document, but don't have consecutive page numbers/ref numbers linking them, (as part of the same document) they are not part of that document.

 

Other things to look out for are key words such as "contained"(which suggests is part of the same document) and "attached" or "referred to", (which suggests is not part of the same document) as that could make or break their claim.

 

Also, if you can break the chain of causality, perhaps by showing the T&C's are current without the originals being available, or by them having £12 fees instead of £25 fees, that would all throw doubt on the construction of the document, IMHO.

 

Remember though, that it is for the creditor to show what the document does or doesn't contain. It's not for you to prove that the documents are separate. The burden lies on the creditor.

 

There is something else, though... Which part of the agreement is "regulated" under the Act? The reason I say that is because the T&C's, generally, won't be regulated under the Act. If that is the case, the agreement should be headed "partly regulated" by the Act, if the T&C's are part of the same document. Take a look here;

 

What the agreement must contain

1 A heading in one of the following forms of words shown prominently on the first page:

 

Hire-Purchase Agreement regulated by the Consumer Credit Act 1974

 

or

 

Conditional Sale Agreement regulated by the Consumer Credit Act 1974

 

or, in any other case,

 

Credit Agreement regulated by the Consumer Credit Act 1974.

 

Where the document embodies an agreement, of which at least one part is a credit agreement not regulated by the Act, the word ‘partly’ must be inserted before ‘regulated’ in the heading – unless the regulated and unregulated parts of the agreement can be clearly seen to be separate.

 

Also...

 

If the agreement refers to another document that contains the T&C's, there's an argument that the agreement isn't executed correctly. The CCA is clear:

 

Quote:

61 Signing of agreement

(1) A regulated agreement is not properly executed unless—

 

(a) a document in the prescribed form itself containing all the prescribed

terms and conforming to regulations under section 60(1) is signed in the

prescribed manner both by the debtor or hirer and by or on behalf of the

creditor or owner, and

 

(b) the document embodies all the terms of the agreement, other than

implied terms, and

 

© the document is, when presented or sent to the debtor or hirer for signature, in such a state that all its terms are readily legible.

Section 60(1) says:

 

Quote:

60 Form and content of agreements

(1) The Secretary of State shall make regulations as to the form and content of documents

embodying regulated agreements, and the regulations shall contain such provisions as

appear to him appropriate with a view to ensuring that the debtor or hirer is made aware

of—

 

(a) the rights and duties conferred or imposed on him by the agreement,

 

(b) the amount and rate of the total charge for credit (in the case of a

consumer credit agreement),

 

© the protection and remedies available to him under this Act, and

 

(d) any other matters which, in the opinion of the Secretary of State, it is

desirable for him to know about in connection with the agreement.

So a properly Executed Agreement MUST be signed by the debtor and the creditor in the prescribed manner and the document MUST contain all of the terms and conditions that you are agreeing to. Otherwise it's not executed.

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Can someone help me

I have today received what i see as a dodgy CCA from Simply Be

 

I posted the request on the 14th October and they say in their letter that they didnt receive it until 23rd October (lies) it was signed for on the 16th October, i have the receipt for recorded/signed for plus they deposited my £1 cheque on the 18th Oct as it was cashed on the 21st

 

Basically they have stalled for extra time whilst frantically looking for an agreement they dont have

 

They have stated that under regulation 3 (2)(b) of the Consumer Credit (Cancellation Notices and Copies of Documents) Regulations 1983 there is no requirement for them to supply me with a photocopy of the agreement bearing my signature and that they can just supply me with a 'true copy' of the agreement

 

I took this account out in May 2005, so this is incorrect, right?

So if they've sent me a 'true copy' of a current agreement(it mentions the £12 charge) they havent

complied with my request for a 'true copy' of the agreement they would've sent me at the time i opened the account have they?

Please tell me i'm getting this right? :confused:

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So if they've sent me a 'true copy' of a current agreement(it mentions the £12 charge) they havent

complied with my request for a 'true copy' of the agreement they would've sent me at the time i opened the account have they?

Please tell me i'm getting this right? :confused:

 

 

Yes thats right - it must be a true copy not a "reconstructed" this is the agreement you should have had type of response. They also need to enclose all documents referredt to within agreement and a current O/S balance of account.

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I think you will find this is a grey area and they can send a reconstructed copy omitting the signature...however to enforce they would need to prove the original in court..

 

 

It can be reconstructed BUT it must be a true copy of original agreement i.e if original agreement doesn't contain prescribed terms then true copy shouldn't either, if default charges were £25 then default charges can't be £12. If original agreement is produced later and is eg an unenforceable agreement then potentially the Credeitor may have laid themselves open to the Fraud Act 2006 if they have been obtaining money from debtor due to production of a false instrument.......

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Yes thats right - it must be a true copy not a "reconstructed" this is the agreement you should have had type of response. They also need to enclose all documents referredt to within agreement and a current O/S balance of account.

Thanks tinks, so even though they've quoted the 1983 regs they're still in the wrong?

It's still not enforceable?

 

They did send the current balance statements and the current t&c's are on the back of the so called 'true copy'

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Thanks tinks, so even though they've quoted the 1983 regs they're still in the wrong?

It's still not enforceable?

 

They did send the current balance statements and the current t&c's are on the back of the so called 'true copy'

 

 

Well I've seen letters from creditors that say we agree the agreement is unenforceable but we can still force you to pay and other rubbish like that. Just because they quote some impressive sounding regulations doesn't mean that what they are saying is correct.....lol! If you read the Regulations and the OFT interprestaion & Goodes then you will realise that a true copy must be just that though it can as B3arty say ommit the signature box.

 

colle

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Well I've seen letters from creditors that say we agree the agreement is unenforceable but we can still force you to pay and other rubbish like that. Just because they quote some impressive sounding regulations doesn't mean that what they are saying is correct.....lol! If you read the Regulations and the OFT interprestaion & Goodes then you will realise that a true copy must be just that though it can as B3arty say ommit the signature box.

 

colle

Thanks, my point is i'm certain they dont have the original (how many of us actually sign them then send them back?)

And they have sent a current 'true copy' with no sig from me but in their sig box there is a sig from a PJ Tynan it looks like

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Thanks, my point is i'm certain they dont have the original (how many of us actually sign them then send them back?)

And they have sent a current 'true copy' with no sig from me but in their sig box there is a sig from a PJ Tynan it looks like

 

 

I find that where creditors have enforceable agreements or alternatively agreements they think may pass as enforceable they tend to send them together with an up to date copy of the current version of the agreement.

 

In cases where they haven't it has usually transpired that there is weither no copy agreement at all or the original agreement is unenforceable................:D

 

On rare occasions an enforceable CCA does arrive after a period of many months but by then the Creditor tends to have committed breaches with the termination of the agreeemnt.

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Thanks, my point is i'm certain they dont have the original (how many of us actually sign them then send them back?)

And they have sent a current 'true copy' with no sig from me but in their sig box there is a sig from a PJ Tynan it looks like

 

Meanwhile, back at the ranch, sending them a DPA SAR requesting the original agreement should force their hand...

 

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Quick Question

 

Just filling im my AQ for a current account.

 

I know the agreement is part 5 exempt but do they still have to serve a DN to terminate the account. I assume they do as its shwing a default on credit file but just need to check....

 

CHeers

 

HAK

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Quick Question

 

Just filling im my AQ for a current account.

 

I know the agreement is part 5 exempt but do they still have to serve a DN to terminate the account. I assume they do as its shwing a default on credit file but just need to check....

 

CHeers

 

HAK

 

No.

 

The original agreement will state how the agreement will be terminated - usually by way of Termination Notice under s.98, rather than Default Notice under s.87/s.88. (This complies with the OFT's Determination under s.74 also)

 

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Hi Car

 

Thing is they have no agreement so what do I do :D

 

HAK

 

Have you seen the OFT Determination? if they complied with that, the debt will be enforceable;

 

To help clarify these matters, this is an extract from a Court case (Coutts v Sebastyen) and is part of the summing up by the Judge in relation to effect on overdrafts and the function of the CCA in such circumstances;

 

“The Defendant provided an overdraft on the account;

a. The agreement was a regulated debtor-creditor agreement within the meaning of s.8 and s.13© of the Consumer Credit Act 1974, providing for 'running-account credit' within the meaning of s.10(1)(a) of the Act (in effect, a revolving credit within an agreed credit limit); and

b. That, as such, it was subject to the requirements of Part V of the Act (including the requirements as to documentation set out in sections 57 to 63 of the Act) save and in so far as it was excluded or exempted from such requirements.

 

Section 65 in Part V of the Act provides that an "improperly executed" regulated agreement is unenforceable by the creditor without a court order. It is common ground that a regulated agreement is "improperly executed" for this purpose if the requirements of sections 57 to 63 have not been complied with.

 

Section 74 of the Act provides for the exclusion of certain agreements from Part V. It provides as follows (so far as material):

"74. – (1) This part …. does not apply to –

(b) a debtor-creditor agreement enabling the debtor to overdraw on a current account, …

(3) Subsection 1(b) … applies only where the OFT so determines, and such a determination –

(a) may be made subject to such conditions as the OFT thinks fit …

(3A) …. in relation to a debtor-creditor agreement under which the creditor is …. a bank …. the OFT shall make a determination that subsection 1(b) above applies unless it considers that it would be against the public interest to do so.

 

THE DETERMINATION:

 

The Determination (which is signed by the Director of Fair Trading) is made under section 74(3) of the Act. I set it out in full:

"1. Under the powers conferred upon me by s.74(3) and (3A) and s.133 of the Consumer Credit 1974, I, the Director General, being satisfied that it would not be against the public interest to do so, hereby revoke with effect from 1st February 1990 the Determination made by me in respect of Section 74(1)(b) and dated 3 November 1983 and now determine that with effect from 1st February 1990 Section 74(1)(b) shall apply to every debtor-creditor agreement enabling the debtor to overdraw on a current account, under which the creditor is a bank.

2. This Determination is made subject to the following conditions:-

(a) that the creditor shall have informed my Office in writing of his general intention to enter into agreements to which the Determination will apply;

(b) that where there is an agreement between a creditor and a debtor for the granting of credit in the form of an advance on a current account, the debtor shall be informed at the time or before the agreement is concluded:

- of the credit limit, if any,

- of the annual rate of interest and the charges applicable from the time the agreement is concluded and the conditions under which these may be amended,

- of the procedure for terminating the agreement;

and this information shall be confirmed in writing.

© that where a debtor overdraws his current account with the tacit agreement of the creditor and that account remains overdrawn for more than 3 months, the creditor must inform the debtor in writing not later than 7 days after the end of that 3 month period of the annual rate of interest and charges applicable.

3. In this Determination the terms 'creditor' and 'debtor' shall have the meanings assigned to them respectively by Section 189 of [the Act]. The term 'bank' includes the Bank of England and banks within the meaning of the Bankers' Books Evidence Act 1879 as amended."

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Car

 

I have had Nothing to inform me of the credit limit or APR etc

 

All they have sent me is an application form for the currment account with no t&C or the above terms.

 

Can I confirm that this is unenforcable and the rest of the Consumer Credit Act applies Ie the Default section...

 

Cheers

 

HAK

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Car

 

I have had Nothing to inform me of the credit limit or APR etc

 

All they have sent me is an application form for the currment account with no t&C or the above terms.

 

Can I confirm that this is unenforcable and the rest of the Consumer Credit Act applies Ie the Default section...

 

Cheers

 

HAK

 

as the DG's determination is about Part V of the Act and the requirement to serve a Default Notice is under Part VII, I would assume they have to serve a compliant DN - unless I've missed an obscure Reg somewhere?

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Car

 

I have had Nothing to inform me of the credit limit or APR etc

 

All they have sent me is an application form for the currment account with no t&C or the above terms.

 

Can I confirm that this is unenforcable and the rest of the Consumer Credit Act applies Ie the Default section...

 

Cheers

 

HAK

 

If they don't comply with the s.74 Determination, they have to comply with the whole Act as they don't get the benefit of it. Looks like it's unenforceable if they haven't got an agreement fully compliant, in your case.

 

as the DG's determination is about Part V of the Act and the requirement to serve a Default Notice is under Part VII, I would assume they have to serve a compliant DN - unless I've missed an obscure Reg somewhere?

 

No - the agreement itself means the parties have waived the need for a DN. There is some discussion to be had over whether a Termination because of a default in payments requires a DN, but, essentially, only a s.98 Termination notice is required. (Unless, as in Un1's case, the Determination hasn't been complied with, meaning a DN is definately required - but then, there is no agreement, so there can't be a default, so no DN... Gets complicated, doesn't it?)

 

:p

 

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Cheers CAR

 

On the POC of the claim they have stated an agreement in writing signed on the **/**/04

 

I have asked on a draft directions for the said agreement to be produced. I have also asked for the copy of the default notice. Should I change this to termination notice???

 

Got to get this correct for Court...

 

HAK

Edited by Having_A_Knightmare
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Cheers CAR

 

On the POC of the claim they have stated an agreement in writing signed on the **/**/04

 

I have asked on a draft directions for the said agreement to be produced. I have also asked for the copy of the default notice. Should I change this to termination notice???

 

Got to get this correct for Court...

 

HAK

 

Yes. Although "any Default or Termination Notice" sounds better and they won't let on it what you are after. ;)

 

I would also insist on pre-hearing disclosure of the agreement, in that case, HAK.

 

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I would also insist on pre-hearing disclosure of the agreement, in that case, HAK.

 

Car how do I do the above...Is the request in the draft directions not good enough??

 

Cheers Mate

 

HAK

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Car how do I do the above...Is the request in the draft directions not good enough??

 

Cheers Mate

 

HAK

 

Oh, it should be, but if they don't comply you need to apply to the Court for an Order that they do comply.

 

Without this document, you can't state your case sufficiently - neither can they - so it must be disclosed pre-hearing, IMHO.

 

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