urgent, quick advice, please

[charlie*]

Would a creditor issue a court summons and a ccj by default without having first issued a termination notice?

 

This is for a friend who dropped himself in it 'cos he didn't know what to do at the time and just stuck his head in the sand... understandable I feel.

 

thanks...

Edited February 25, 2010 by charlie*

[haggis1984]

They shouldnt have, but its possible. Your friend would have recieved the claim form etc from the court though, then notice of judgement if he didn't defend.

[MandM]

Yes they could. If it was by default then i'm assuming that you mean it was undefended. If that were the case then they would of had to produce little in the way of paperwork other than the claim form (probably online).

 

The termination notice would be of no relevance to the court whether issued or not.

 

No defence or acknowledgement of service = ccj by default. The court would have no need to question anything.

 

Hope this helps

 

M

[charlie*]

Thank you guys, I will let my friend know.

 

Next time he will be prepared as he now knows of CAG.

 

charlie

[cerberusalert]

It may be p[ossible for him to apply to have it set aside see; National Debtline England & Wales | Debt Advice | Factsheet 12 How To Set Aside A Judgment In The County Court

 

Also see; County Court Claims and County Court Judgments (CCJs) : Directgov - Money, tax and benefits