PLEASE HELP ME , i had a ccj against me in 2006 for £17.5k and with interest plus court costs it came to about £21k i was told to pay £40 per month but then i got made redundant i could not keep up payments i panicked and did a runner {I know i could go to prison} - no you cant!! i got a letter from HL Solicitors acting on behalf of Lloyds TSB who said fill in attachment of earnings order and make an offer of repayment or they will enforce the suspended attachment of earnings which was £40. My question is can i go back to the district Judge and ask him to lower it again or even write the debt off as i only work part time doing 2 shifts a week, £40PCM does not even cover the interest on this the debt is growing by at least £100 and i cannot physically do anything about it, Please advise me what to do my fellow caggers.

Hi, My company has been issued a Statutory demand by POST by a company that provided us Professional services. We used them for 2 + years. We used to use their services and they would bill us for the time spent. We would request them for some work and they would bill us in good faith that was the arrangement so no confirmation/approval of time spent was required The last two invoices were ridiculously overcharged for the last invoice we asked a break down of the time spent on each of the items. What we got was a vague scribbling of the time spent. I did not dispute it but since some of the same items appeared on previous invoices I asked them for the previous invoice breakdown as well. My hope was to question them when I had all the break downs. They did NOT provide me with the breakup of the past invoice. We had paid all their invoices but the last one where we paid approximately 40% of the dues. And were waiting for more information before we could pay them. They waited for a couple of months and now sent us a Statutory demand. So my question is we dont have any formal agreement with them and have not disputed their invoice they hope was we could settle it once we got all the breakdownsp a nd settle it and not use them in the future. But now since we have this SD what should we do. In reading through some of these posts it seemed like a SD to threaten, they allege we owe them 2000.00 GBP approx but according to us because they overcharged us we have actually paid them more. Now I would like to know from the experts on here how do we respond to the SD as there are no details of the court on it. And how do we dispute this.

As requested I'm starting a new thread for this... I'm applying to have an SD set aside - see my other thread - http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/showthread.php?292896-Lowell-CRA-s-amp-Searches...%283-Viewing%29-nbsp I'm using the following reasons - do they sound ok? A – I have already been chased for this alleged debt by Lowell Portfolio who later admitted the debt was not mine (See Attachments) B – Capquest & their agents Mackenzie Hall have been chasing me for this alleged debt and despite my writing to them on several occasions enclosing copies of the correspondence from Lowell, they have ignored me. (See attachments) C – The Statutory Demand is dated 9th May. I did not receive it until 18th May. By letter dated 17th May, Mackenzie Hall offered me a payment plan to clear this same alleged debt. D – Clearly neither Capquest nor their agents are speaking to each other – the conflicting information I am receiving shows this. E – Capquest are using the issuing of the Statutory Demand as a Debt Collection tool which I understand is not correct. Thanks for any advice

Hoping for some advice please. In summary - A claim was made against me which, as well as all the preceding correspondence, was sent to an incorrect non-existent address, therefore I knew nothing of it. The claim etc was returned to the solicitor as address unknown but they still pressed ahead with a default Judgment. They presumably found my correct address in the end and subsequently communicated with me, making mention of the claim and subsequent default Judgment. I have been corresponding ever since in an attempt to put the matter to bed. Having asked the claimant's solicitor to set aside the Judgment (for obvious reasons) I ended up having to submit an Application to the court myself, which has now been listed as a hearing for a forthcoming date. This has prompted the claimant's solicitor to send me a Consent Order to sign which agrees to set aside the Judgment ONLY if I file a defence soon thereafter. Is this normal/acceptable practice? Surely if the claim, sent to a non-existent address, which I have still never received, is set aside then the process should start again? And it is difficult to file a defence on somthing never received. On putting this to the solicitor they said that if I do not sign it then they will write to the court and say that they have tried to be reasonable and I have refused. Any advice please? Many thanks in advance.

Thinking about my debts,as I do constantly, I'm wondering if there would be any point in me trying to get a satisfied CCJ set aside on the basis that it was applied for in 2009 by which time I had been a resident of Spain for six years. The debt was one of many that my husband ran up unbeknown to me. I only found out about some of these when I managed to get a credit report earlier this year. The CCJ was showing on my file. It had already been settled by my husband and showed as settled on his file, but not on mine. He then wrote to the court and on an application to the trust online this week, I can now see that it shows as settled. However it is going to be on my file for another five years and I would like it removed if possible. If I did ask for it to be set aside, would this alert any debt collectors to my whereabouts? We also have two joint, defaulted debts with First Direct (now sold to Mkd Llp) which I had no knowledge of. I don't wish to contest these as they will hopefully become statute barred in two years, but again I had no contact about the debts despite First Direct knowing I had moved to Spain years earlier. At the time my husband had a UK address and I'm guessing that all correspondence went there. However First Direct knew I was living here and had previously telephoned me here on my Spanish land-line which they had, although never about the accounts being in arrears. Surely they should have contacted me before issuing defaults?

I had a Credit Card from M&S and the contract was terminated around 05/2006 and the account was transferred to DC (Legal&trade collection), one of there agent used to do the door collection of £25 a month from 07/2006 and then I stopped the door collection and the last payment was on 06/05/2008 and the closing balance was £2128 as shown on the collection card. I terminated the door collection because I felt that I was intimidated. After that I had phone calls and I ignored them as I had few DC on my back and then I heard nothing from them for 4 years. On 19 July 2012, I had a letter from Wescot SPV saying “we inform you that unless you made a full repayment of your outstanding balance or contacted us to agree an acceptable repayment plan we would take legal action”. I ignored the letter and thought I will deal with them when I come back from abroad. I left the country on 01/08/2012 as I visit my elder parents every year; I come back on the 06/09/2012.During my absence Wescot issued: 1) On 03/08/12 a county court including interest form 09/05/2008 to 03/2012. 2) On 06/08/12 an intimidating letter asking me to pay £2939 to avoid CCJ. 3) On 28/08/12 a judgment by default was issued against me, asking me to pay the claimant a total of £2939. What is irritating me is that I had no given a chance to challenge them because I was a way and those DCs know most people go away during the month of August. My Question is that can I challenge them and ask the court to set a side the CCJ on the basis that I was unable to defend the case because I was abroad?

Hello, Back in 2004, my mobile service provider were charging me in correctly for pay monthly account. They were charging me for 500 free minutes but I remember my contract was for 600 free min. I spoke to them back in 2004/05 to send me a correct bill which I can pay and I refused to pay the incorrect bill. They never sent me any correct bill but sold my account to debt collector. Recently in 2011, that debt collector has successfully got a CCJ against me which I have recently found out by looking at my credit history. I made a mistake by not replying to the letter which court sent me back in 2011. It might sound strange but I thought that letter is from the debt collector trying to intimidate me. I am planning to apply for CCJ to be set aside.....does it sound like a good idea? I unfortunately don't have the copy of either the contract or bill any more as have thrown them long time ago. Thanks for your help. Cheers...

I've recently found out I have a CCJ against me. I live in the Australia & my parents have been contacted by Bailiffs. When we left the UK we were in a certain amount of debt & simply didn't have the funds to service the debt & once we arrived out in Aus we went from double to single income, so couldn't even think or repaying. Now a few years down the line we have just put a deposit down on a house so have no funds what so ever to pay debts in the UK. So my question is, does the fact we ran away from the debt & didn't inform any of our creditors of where we were heading, now mean we cannot get the CCJ put aside?