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    • Hi Guys, well a year on and my friend has just received this in the post today, obviously a little scared so looking for more of your advice.  Letter from the NCC dated 1-May-2024 is as follows.......   Before deputy district judge Haythorne sitting at the national business centre, 4th floor st Kathrine's house Northampton Upon reading an application from the claimant  it is ordered that  1. The claim be sent to the county court at #### (Friends local Court) Because this order has been made without a hearing, the parties have the right to apply to have the order set aside, varied or stayed.  A party making such an application must send or deliver the application to the court (together with any appropriate fee) to arrive within seven days of service of this order.  If the application is one which requires a hearing, and a) the party making the application is the defendant: and b) the defendant as an individual, then upon filing of the application the claim will be transferred to the defendants home court.  In all other cases requiring a hearing the claim will be transferred to the preferred court.    As a result of an order made on the 1 May 2024, this claim has been transferred to the county court at ##### (friends local court) 
    • I am heading over to hers tomorrow so I will find out.  Will there be something written in the agreement or does it depend on the agreement its self ? Just so I know what to look for, so I can provide as much information as possible on here. 
    • The answer to this is going to depend on what the agreement your friend signed says. Or contact the housing provider and ask them.  
    • Thank you all for the responses, to answers a few questions  - she has had the car since Jan 23 on a 5 year term.  - She is unsure what the agreement is called, but at the end she has the option to make a payment to "buy" the car - she recieves benefits for her young children alongside the ssp (normally she would be on NLW for a 16 hr a week job)  - Yes she would like to keep the car  She has not responded to the last email from them asking her to call and it'll be followed up in an email. I told her to hold off until atleast Wednesday so I can read a few posts on here and get some more information.  I will ensure she follows up with a letter, that has not been signed but instead her name written.   Thank you  
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Webb Resolutions - LPA receiver - When Can house be repossessed without going through a court?


Valhalla
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I have a buy to let mortgage on a second house (I appreciate that my case is not as severe as those of people who risk being evicted from their only home, but I'd still like some advice from anyone who can help please)

 

Lender has appointed LPA receiver due to arrears. I had been paying mortgae plus £100 /month towards arrears but missed a payment a couple of months ago ( Unable to get a tenant for several months, so no rental income)

 

Have now found a tenant whose rent would pay monthly payment plus £100 to arrears but the LPA receiver won't allow me to rent the house until an agreement has been reached on the arrears repayment.

 

I have offered a repayment schedule over 15 months on the basis they allow me to put in a tenant and pay all the rent to the lender plus I've included some lump sums next year, but this was not accepted by the lender because they have no guarantee the lump sums wil be paid.

I have offered to find a guarantor for the lump sums, but lender says this is too time consuming

Have asked for time to sell the property myself. Still not acceptable unless I have someone in mind immediately

 

The receiver now says that on Friday the lender will send contractors to change the locks. He says Pre-Repossession Protocol doesn't apply to BTL property.

So far no court hearing, no repossesion order of any sort.

Can the lender go directly to repossesion like this without going through the courts?

In 6 - 8 weeks I will be able to make a fairly large payment towards arrears but need to delay proceedings as much as possible.

What should I do please?

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Hi The lender is Webb Resolutions

There is no repossession order but they have repossesssed the ouse anyway - this morning

I spoke to a solicitor yesterday who said that they are entitled to do this.

If any one sees it differently I'd love to know, but at the moment short of repaying the arrears in fill now, things don't look great

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Hi Valhalla,

 

From what I remember from my limited legal studies and have confirmed with some hasty research, a mortgagee is able to repossess a property without a possession order if possession of the property can be taken peacefully. The position was clarified in the Court of Appeal case of Ropaigealach v Barclays Bank plc, in that instance the property was empty and subject to renovation so the mortgage company could take it peaceably without the need to obtain a possession order and then enforce it.

 

It sounds as though the property was vacant in your case so based on what you have said the advice that you have been given sounds correct in legal terms. There is no consumer protection when it comes to buy to let mortgages as they are completely unregulated and the pre-action protocol doesn't apply as it only relates to residential loans (it's full title being: Pre-Action Protocol for Possession Claims based on Mortgage or Home Purchase Plan Arrears in Respect of Residential Property). Unfortunately none of this is very helpful for you, maybe someone else will come along with an alternative view or some alternative case law.

 

Kind Regards,

 

GG

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BTL are regulated!! I had this confoirmed by a judge in an application against me by mars capital which I defended and won!! thsy didnt follow spr and the judge gave thema right telling off

At the time I had a tenant so slightly different than this case if you avhe an arrangemenet in place they should not be taking possesion

 

send a PM to ellen she is a real wiz in this area

upsn downs

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Perhaps we are not talking about the same type of regulation, I meant not regulated under CCA or FSMA ie by OFT or FSA. I don't know what SPR means (but would love to be enlightened!) but stand by what I said about the pre-action protocol it's there to protect homeowners at risk of eviction not landlords who might lose their investment property.

 

I've just realised you might mean the Civil Procedure Rules or CPR, which would (as far as I know) apply in all possession cases that go through the courts but as I said earlier vacant properties are an exception to the need to get a court order.

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  • 2 weeks later...

Hi Valhalla

 

They can repossess the property, and have the power to do so through appointing a receiver under the Law of Property Act 1925. The LPA receiver can manage the property and does so on your behalf and can sell the property with or without tenants in situ, it is one method by which lenders recover their security on Buy to Let properties. The Pre-action protocol does not apply in this instance, as they have not taken any proceedings to appoint the receiver. The LPA gives the right to appoint a receiver if 2 payments are missed, who can then collect rent, place tenants, and dispose of the property if he/she sees fit.

 

So the solicitor you saw is correct. Hope that helps.

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Hi there

does this also apply to "Second Homes" which aren't specifically BTL but might be rented out for a few months when the property would otherwise be empty.

 

For example say you are away working in Devon and you have a second home there which you use while on that job while your primary residence might be for example iin Manchester.

 

What is the LEGAL definition of a BTL where repossession like this could take place and a SECOND HOME which although not occupied all year you do use part of the time.

 

Technically I can't actually see any difference in a BTL and a second property but the wording of LAW is of course the important thing in this.

 

Thanks

 

Jimbo

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