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    • yes they mostly would be enforceable, but that wasnt the point. even if they get a CCJ the very worst they could have done is get a restriction k which is useless to them. doesnt hurt anything. the CCJ would remain on file for 6yrs yes, but then gone same as a DN. the rest k charge does not show at all. and even so, the idea was to get your debts issued a default notice ASAP, them RESUME payments.. the advise is NOT conflicting, just you don't read things properly or understand.  oh well. dx
    • This is the dilemma I had then and still have it. The bit that stopped me was the post 2015 comments about them being enforceable now in most instances which I feel hasn’t been answered unless I am missing something. the bonus I guess is not all credit agreements now will be chasing me so less people chasing me down so to speak. this is the problem as there is conflicting messaging out there it is hard to plan a strategic way forward 
    • In 2017 my wife was given PIP and I finally, officially, became her carer. In 2019 she was reviewed and we were told it would be done by phone to make it easier for her as she has mobility issues and anxiety. The review was very simple, Has anything changed? No, ok, we'll stay as you are then. In 2022 a second review, this time by phone again but with an awkward given at the end for 5 years. Today, we got a new review letter (I know wait lists are bad, but I dont think the wait will take til 2027 for a decision). We're a bit confused because it's a letter, not a phone call as before. The form is just questions that ask "has anything changed" Now, since 2017, nothing has changed except we had our home adapted via disability grant. This was noted in the phone calls. So we should really write that nothing has changed in the last 2 years. The adaptations have been mentioned in both previous phone reviews, but not in writing so I guess we should bring it up. But we feel that they want us to explain everything as if it were a new claim again... And are worried if we miss something in the original claim or the phone calls she will risk losing part of the award (a 2 point swing could be really bad) It does just say "has anything changed?" But in dealing with ESA prior to getting PIP, answering the question asked "has your condition worsened or improved" at a review process with a simple "no, I'm still the same" somehow led to ESA ending and needing appeal. So just want a bit of guidance. How much detail is needed? Is minimal ok? Or should we be blunt with the fact nothing has changed, and bullet point the things she struggles with in each section?   I know the obvious thing is to just explain it all,but over 10 years the sheer amount of times the poor woman has had ESA or PIP stopped/refused just because something was missed out in their report, or they felt it meant a new claim should be made, or that they judged her healthy because we missed a tiny thing in our forms. During COVID it finally seemed like it was all just going to be smooth, especially with the phone reviews and the 5 year reward, but here we are. We just want to make sure we have the least chance to trip ourselves up, but making sure we have what is expected if you get me? I wish I still had a copy of the forms from 2017, because I could just verbatim copy them and add in about the adaptation, but (ironically) we lost our photocopies we kept of them when the house was being adapted
    • might of been better to have got them all defaulted 2yrs ago as we carefully explained before then you'd already be 1/3rd there and your current issue would not be one.    
    • No doubt the hotel will have security cameras on the floor you were staying to confirm or deny the allegation??   The only compensation you will probably get, which will be discretionary as a goodwill gesture, will be a credit voucher for the entire hotel group. Very much doubt anything more than that as you have not substantiated, the hotel committed the transgression 
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Griffiths V Welcome


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Well in my case Post. It was a re-write with no funds exchanding hands, no pre-agreement and no cooling off period. It was signed in a Welcome Office though and I never recieved a copy of the agreement on the day.

When a settlement figure from your previous loan is given it never contains what is in it. Why ?

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Yeah that will be tough. It was a telephone call from them offering me lower monthly payments and less interest if I agreed to a re-write and then it was done as quickly as possible. Was not aware of MIF any other charges in those days. I have sent you a mail with that revised contract Post. See what you can do please mate. Kind Regards.

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hi everyone,

 

My problem is that the mif and acceptance fee WERE NOT STATED AS THE TOTAL AMOUNT OF CREDIT.

 

However, they were fees added to the total amount of credit and interest was charged on the new total (albiet that the new total was not shown, and would have taken the agreement to an unregulated one)

 

What this means I think is that because of the Griffiths case, they are allowed to charge this fee (whether it be acceptance or mif) and add it to the total amount of credit, but not show it on the credit agreement.

 

The agreement, apparently states that “interest will be calculated at the rate of interest on the daily balance of the total amount of credit and the acceptance fee…”. Interest is, of course, also charged on the mortgage indemnity fee - and this is not specified.

 

This appears to be a failure to properly show an element of the contract very similar to the situation in Southern Pacific where it was not stated that interest was being charged on the “broker administration fee”. In Southern Pacific, of course, the Court of Appeal overturned the first Appeal Judgement and held that the agreement was enforceable. This would suggest that Court could well take a similar approach to my case.

 

Whether the agreement is defective because the ‘mortgage Indemnity Fee’ is essentially a contract of insurance. This point was raised in Griffiths v Progressive Financial Services t/a Welcome Financial Services (2006). In that case the Judge held that the Mortgage Indemnity Fee was NOT sold under a contract of insurance and that the ‘total amount of credit’ was therefore correctly stated.

 

The Judgment in Griffiths, then, effectively closes this line of argument, and is particularly relevant to my case??

 

Confused as hell now!

:confused:

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This Mif Applied By Welcome Is Not An Insurance Charge By There Own Addmission

There Is No Insurance Policy So What Is It

 

Its A Bogus Money Making [problem] And Proporting To Be Some Thing It Is Not

 

Fraud Act Any One

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the agreement clealry sttaed that the mif is a charge for credit,

 

BUT

 

What legislation is there to state that its incorrect for interest to be allowed to be applied as a charge for credit????

 

For example:

"In that case the Judge held that the Mortgage Indemnity Fee was NOT sold under a contract of insurance and that the ‘total amount of credit’ was therefore correctly stated."

 

:confused::confused:

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My view is that the MIF and the acceptance fee is part of the total charge for credit and is not credit and as such should not attract interest. These fees are both compulsory and clearly are a charge made for the credit advanced. Its clear now that MIF is not an insurance but just another fee that welcome have devised, therefore I would argue that this is part of the cost of credit without interest being applied but paid over time sec 9(4) says this I think

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In my particular case, the cases of Wilson, Southern Pacific and Griffiths seem all to be against me.

 

Section 9 (4) states:

 

"For the purposes of this Act, an item entering into the total charge for credit shall not be treated as credit even though time is allowed for its payment."

 

My only concern is where does it say in any legislation, that:

 

1) They are allowed to add fees to the total amount of credit, without actually increasing the total amount of credit on the Regulated Credit Agreement

 

2) If these fees added to the original cash loan and it would mean that the loan exceeds £25k, what legislation would prevent them from enforcing the agreement.

 

3) What legislation states that they are allowed to add fees to the total amount of credit, charge for credit, then add interest to the gross total.

 

Hope that makes sense?

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In my particular case, the cases of Wilson, Southern Pacific and Griffiths seem all to be against me.

 

Section 9 (4) states:

 

"For the purposes of this Act, an item entering into the total charge for credit shall not be treated as credit even though time is allowed for its payment."

 

My only concern is where does it say in any legislation, that:

 

1) They are allowed to add fees to the total amount of credit, without actually increasing the total amount of credit on the Regulated Credit Agreement

 

2) If these fees added to the original cash loan and it would mean that the loan exceeds £25k, what legislation would prevent them from enforcing the agreement.

 

3) What legislation states that they are allowed to add fees to the total amount of credit, charge for credit, then add interest to the gross total.

 

Hope that makes sense?

 

Excellent question, and I would love to know the answer to that myself too.

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In my view the fees, as they are part of the cost of credit, do not add to the actual credit which is the loan amount i.e. 25K The loan of 25K is the credit that the act refers to while the fees being part of the cost of credit together with the interest do not increase the loan amount, just as the interest applied to 25K does not increase the amount of credit, so do the fees not increase the credit either, the loan to which interest is applied is still 25K not 25K + fees. Sec 9(4) is clear on this I think. Its my opinion of course.

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I assume this figure includes MIF as well. Still a fee and yes you would pay back that much but still for the purpose of the act I would argue that your loan is still 25K and not over. The fees take it over 25K but are not counted as credit as they are part cost of credit. I am assuming that the argument is whether the loan exceeds 25K or not, I say it does not. Without going back over,I think this started as an MIF thing but it was established that MIF is a fee and not an insurance. Therefore MIF is cost of credit as post has said

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Even if the loan is Over £25,000 if the agreement says something like," A Loan Regulated by the Consumer Credit Act 1974 ". In my opinion it is Regulated by the Act.

 

For that simple reason you are affected All the Protection of the Act!

 

Am I right? Or is this even relevant to some of your worries Emanevs?

 

Cheers, MARK

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