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    • Please can you avoid posting solid blocks of text. It is difficult for people to read especially when they are using a small screen such as a telephone. Well spaced and punctuated please. I hear what you say about the evidence – but do you have copies of it? And if so can we see it please. That's the point. We want to know what you have. As long as you have the evidence in your possession then you have some kind of control
    • Hi, the vehicle went to Audi Chingford on Thursday 13th May. I did state beforehand that I only wanted a diagnostic. The technician out of courtesy opened the drain letting huge deposits of water escape the seals. Video evidence was provided via AUDI cam. The link for the audi cam has been forwarded to BMW and Motonovo. I spoke to branch manager explained the situation and he stated he would sent me an email outlining the issue. Audi state this is not really an issue and more of a design flaw. However, the seals still have water ingress. I purchased the vehicle with £0 deposit on a 60 months HP plan for £520.00. The vehicle total was £21000. I did not go for any extended warranty. I live almost 70 miles away from the aftersales centre in Peterborough. I have previously uploaded the document I forwarded to BMW however it was in word format. I have had to buy a new tyre almost three days after purchasing vehicle. BMW still have not compensated me for the v62 cost as they said they would. 
    • I would suggest that you stop trying to rely on legal theory – as you understand it. Firstly, because we are dealing with practical/pragmatic situations and at a low value level where these arguments tend not to work. Secondly, because you clearly have misunderstood the assessment of quantum where there are breaches of obligations. The formula that you have cited above is the method of loss calculation in torts. In contract it is entirely different. The law of obligations generally attempts to remedy the breach. This means that in tort, damages seek to put you into the position you would have been in had the breach not occurred. In other words it returns you to your starting position – point zero. Contract damages attend put you into the position that you would have been had the breach not occurred but this is not your starting position, contract damages assume that the agreement in dispute had actually been carried out. This puts you into your final position. You sold an item for £XXX. Your expectation was that you your item would be correctly delivered and that you would be the beneficiary of £XXX. Your expectation loss is the amount that you sold the item for and that is all you are entitled to recover. If you want, you can try to sue for the larger sum – and we will help you. But if they ask for evidence of the value of the item as it was sold then I can almost guarantee that either you will be obliged to settle for the lesser sum – or else a judge will give you judgement but for the lesser sum. This will put you to the position that you would have been had there been no breach of contract. I understand from you now that when you dispatch the item you declared the retail cost to you and not your expected benefit of £XXX. To claim for the retail value in the circumstances would offend the rules relating to betterment. If you want to do it then we will help you – but don't be surprised if you take a tumble.  
    • I was caught speeding 3 times in the same week, on the same road. All times were 8-12mph higher than the limit. I was offered the course for the first offense and I now need to accept the other 2 offenses. I just want to be ready for what might come. Will I get the £100 fine and 3 points for each of them or do I face something more severe?  These are my only offenses in 8 years of driving.
    • I'll get my letter drafted this evening. Its an item I sold, which I'm also concerned about, as whilst I don't have my original purchase receipt (the best I have is my credit card statement showing a purchase from Car Audio Centre), I do unfortunately have the eBay listing where I sold it for much less. But as I said before this is now a question of compensation: true compensation would seek to put me back into the position I was in before the loss ie: that title would remain with me until my buyer has accepted this, and so compensation should be that which would be needed to replace the lost item. But in the world of instant electronic payment, it could be argued that as I had already been paid, the title to the goods had already transferred, and I was required to refund the buyer after the loss. And so, despite my declared value being the retail price - that which is needed to return me to my pre-sales position, the compensatory value should be the value I sold it for, which being a second-hand item from a private seller is lower. I still believe that I should be claiming for the item's full value, rather than how much I sold it for, as this is the same for insurance: we don't insure the value we paid, but rather the value of the item to put us back into the position we would be in if we ever needed to claim. Its for the loss adjuster to argue the toss
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      On 15/1/24 booked appointment with Big Motoring World (BMW) to view a mini on 17/1/24 at 8pm at their Enfield dealership.  

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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

      Please note that a recent case against UPS failed on exactly the same issue with the judge held that the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 did not apply.

      We will be getting that transcript very soon. We will look at it and we will understand how the judge made such catastrophic mistakes. It was a very poor judgement.
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      This is good ethical practice.

      It would be very nice if the parcel delivery companies – including EVRi – practised this kind of thing as well.

       

      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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Statute Barred show up on your credit file


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yes it can, ........ in a way.

 

but only if a default/marker is placed in the 6yrs prior to the statute barred date. Then that marker/default will remain for 6yrs from its issue. so effectively, lets say the default/marker was placed in the last month before statute barring, it could show as a debt for almost 12yrs.

 

but once a debt is statute barred a default/marker should not be added.

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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yes it can, ........ in a way.

 

but only if a default/marker is placed in the 6yrs prior to the statute barred date. Then that marker/default will remain for 6yrs from its issue. so effectively, lets say the default/marker was placed in the last month before statute barring, it could show as a debt for almost 12yrs.

 

but once a debt is statute barred a default/marker should not be added.

 

dx

 

 

Great I will check my file again. I have aplied for a job in HR within a bank. I'm told they run pre employment credit checks..

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i should have added 'in total' after the 12yrs [6yrs back - 6yrs fwd] but you know what i mean.;)

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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The last payment I made to hbos was in dec 02. To Rockwell called me in May 09 forcing me to pay them. I had no contact from hbos during this time. Rockwell have made me pay £1100 of £6000 already. On my credit report this is not shown as a default. Can claim the rest of the money now I've made forced payments? Also I cleared a debt with nco in august 09 & it's still on my file as default. I'm gutted paying then if my report is still negative. I'm in a right mess as you can see.

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yes it can, ........ in a way.

 

but only if a default/marker is placed in the 6yrs prior to the statute barred date. Then that marker/default will remain for 6yrs from its issue. so effectively, lets say the default/marker was placed in the last month before statute barring, it could show as a debt for almost 12yrs.

 

but once a debt is statute barred a default/marker should not be added.

 

dx

 

No it should'nt The default marker should be placed on file at the time of the default & not years or even months after the event. If it isn't its not valid & should be removed. The alternative would be horrendous as we would have creditors & DCA's in particular renewing notices every 5 years 364 days & 365 days on leap years:eek:

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ooooohhh... you can stop paying rockwell if there has been a six years period where you made no I/O on the a/c.

 

in otherwords , if a 6yrs period has existed, it cannot be un-statute barred.

nasty dca.. you've wasted money there if that is the case....

 

as for the nco one, if you can prove the default was solely because of unlawful charges, it must be removed, but you need to reclaim the charges first. if not, sadly, its thee for 6yrs from date stamped. but the debt should show as settled.

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

Link to post
Share on other sites

No it should'nt The default marker should be placed on file at the time of the default & not years or even months after the event. If it isn't its not valid & should be removed. The alternative would be horrendous as we would have creditors & DCA's in particular renewing notices every 5 years 364 days & 365 days on leap years:eek:

 

ofcourse they should jc, my bad..

 

int scenario though, i wonder what rules govern this in effect though......

and if like all the others dca's are a master to themselves only.

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Can I just clarify this then - in most cases a Default Notice is sent by the OC as a last attempt to get you to pay. Then the alleged debt is sold/passed on to a DCA, so why is it that so many DCAs issue and record defaults on a persons CR file - often months or even years' down the line?

 

For instance, I had a default notice from an OC who, after correspondence marked my file as satisfied, then sold it on. It still shows on my credit file as satisfied. However, the DCA who purchased the alleged debt then put their own entry (difference number) on my file with a new default date (about 2 years later to be exact). I queried this and the CRA said that I had to prove it was the same debt as it showed by the OC as a loan and the DCA as a Credit Card. With no CCA provided I was not sure which it was and CRA was not interested and both are still on my file to this day!

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Sorry but it's 6 years from when the actual default letter is dated not when the OC decides to lodge it which could be months or even years after the event

 

I thought it was six years from last PAYMENT of written acknowledgement, not when they can be bothered to send a default letter? :confused:

 

Otherwise they would all be holding back the default letters until the 11th month of the 5 year.

[sIGPIC][/sIGPIC]

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I just called Rockwell who have told me that even I'd the debt is statute barred I still need to clear the debt. I have refused and asked for this in writing I fear the money I have paid them since April is lost. Ok now I'll call NCO and thames credit.

 

Thank you all for your help!!!

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I just called Rockwell who have told me that even I'd the debt is statute barred I still need to clear the debt. I have refused and asked for this in writing I fear the money I have paid them since April is lost. Ok now I'll call NCO and thames credit.

 

Thank you all for your help!!!

 

haha you have to do no such thing... (as in clearing the debt)

 

You've lost the money I'm afraid tho.. just because its stat barred doesnt mean the debt disappears, its just they cant enforce the collection.

 

Send them the stat barred letter by recorded delivery and mark this one up as done and dusted :-D

 

S.

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can anyone give me the exact rule concerning this?

 

thanks

 

All the details are contained in this, it jumps around paragraphs inside so I cant copy it all out... sorry.

 

http://www.ico.gov.uk/upload/documents/library/data_protection/detailed_specialist_guides/default_tgn_version_v3%20%20doc.pdf

 

S.

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Thanks, I guess Rockewell is now is closed case. I called NCO on 08709030957 asking why my file has not been updated to show the debt as settled. The chap I spoke to was useless. He just said I will speak to someone and they will look into this. I insited on taking his managers name. If I have settled this debt it's a breach of the agreement if they do not update my file right?

 

Thames credit were helpful and asked me to fax the report and they will update this on line. I'll send that today or should i hold off?

 

In 2002 I lost my job, got into a lot of debt and had nowhere to live. I'm on my feet again trying to keep up with paying it al back ever since. I'm drained out with dealing with the likes of NCO.

 

So sorry with all my questions. I really am lost. Thanks for all the help.

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Can I just clarify this then - in most cases a Default Notice is sent by the OC as a last attempt to get you to pay. Then the alleged debt is sold/passed on to a DCA, so why is it that so many DCAs issue and record defaults on a persons CR file - often months or even years' down the line?

 

For instance, I had a default notice from an OC who, after correspondence marked my file as satisfied, then sold it on. It still shows on my credit file as satisfied. However, the DCA who purchased the alleged debt then put their own entry (difference number) on my file with a new default date (about 2 years later to be exact). I queried this and the CRA said that I had to prove it was the same debt as it showed by the OC as a loan and the DCA as a Credit Card. With no CCA provided I was not sure which it was and CRA was not interested and both are still on my file to this day!

 

We all know they do but aren't supposed to &if they do you can complain to the ICO

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I thought it was six years from last PAYMENT of written acknowledgement, not when they can be bothered to send a default letter? :confused:

 

Otherwise they would all be holding back the default letters until the 11th month of the 5 year.

 

 

Correct but we are assuming that no payments have been hence the default letter The default notice & the none payment must be linked usually 14 days

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