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    • Please see my comments in orange within your post.
    • no i meant the email from parcel2go which email address did they send it from and who signed it off (whos name is at the bottom)
    • I understand confusion with this thread.  I tried to keep threads separate because there have been so many angles.    But a team member merged them all.  This is why it's hard to keep track. This forum exists to help little people fight injustice - however big or small.  Im here to try get a decent resolution. Not to give in to the ' big boys'. My "matter' became complicated 'matters' simply because a lender refused to sell a property. What can I say?  I'll try in a nutshell to give an overview: There's a long lease property. I originally bought it short lease with a s.146 on it from original freeholder.  I had no concerns. So lender should have been able to sell a well-maintained lovely long lease property.  The property was great. The issue is not the property.  Economy, sdlt increases, elections, brexit, covid, interest hikes etc didn't help.  The issue is simple - the lender wanted to keep it.   House or Flat? Before repo I offered to clear my loan.  I was a bit short and lender refused.  They said (recorded) they thought the property was worth much more and they were happy to keep accruing interest (in their benefit) until it reached a point where they felt they could repo and still easily quickly sell to get their £s back.  This was a mistake.  The market was (and is) tough.   2y later the lender ceo bid the same sum to buy the property for himself. He'd rejected higher offers in the intervening period whilst accruing interest. Lenders have a legal obligation to sell the property for the best price they can get. If they feel the offer is low they won't sell it, because it's likely the borrower will say the same. I had the property under offer to a fantastic niche buyer but lender rushed to repo and buyer got spooked and walked.  It had taken a long time to find such a lucrative buyer.  A sale which would have resulted in £s and another asset for me. Post repo lender had 1 offer immediately.  But dragged out the process for >1y - allegedly trying to get other offers. But disclosure shows there was only one valid buyer. Again, points as above. Lender appointed receiver (after 4 months) - simply to try acquire the freehold.  He used his powers as receiver to use me, as leaseholder, to serve notice on freeholders.  Legally that failed. Meanwhile lender failed to secure property - and squatters got in (3 times).  And they failed to maintain it.  So freeholders served a dilapidations notice (external) - on me as leaseholder (cc-ed to lender).   (That's how it works legally) Why serve a delapidations notice? If it's in the terms of the lease to maintain the property to a good standard, then serve an S146 notice instead as it's a clear breach of the lease. I don't own the freehold.  But I am a trustee and have to do right by the freeholders.  This is where matters got/ get complicated.  And probably lose most caggers.   Lawyers got involved for the freeholders to firstly void the receiver enfranchisement notice. Secondly, to serve the dilapidations notice.  The lack of maintenance was in breach of lease and had to be served to protect fh asset. Enfranchisement isn't something that can be "voided", it's in the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 that leaseholders have the right to buy the freehold of the property. It's normal, whether it is a "normal" leaseholder or a repossession with a leasehold house, to claim this right of enfranchisement and sell the property with said rights attached and the purchase price of the freehold included in the final completion price. That's likely what the mortgage provider wished to do. The lender did no repairs. They said a buyer would undertake them. Which was probably correct. If they had sold. After 1y lender finally agreed to sell to the 1st offeror and contracts went with lawyers.  Within 1 month lender reneged.  Lender tried to suggest buyer walked. Evidence shows he/ his lawyers continued trying to exchange (cash) for 4 months.  Evidence shows lender and receiver strategy had been to renege and for ceo to take control.   I still think that's their plan. Redact and scan said evidence up for others to look at? Lender then stupidly chose to pretty much bulldoze the property.  Other stuff was going on in the background. After repo I was in touch by phone and email and lender knew post got to me.   Despite this, after about 10 months (before and then during covid), they deliberately sent SDs and eventually a B petition to an incorrect address and an obscure small court.  They never served me properly.  (In hindsight I understand they hoped to get a backdoor B - so they could keep the property that way.)  Eventually the random court told them to email me by way of service.  At this point their ruse to make me B failed.  I got a lawyer (friend paid). The B petition was struck out. They’d failed to include the property as an asset. They were in breach of insolvency rules. So this is dealt with then. Simultaneously the receiver again appointed lawyers to act on my behalf as leaseholder. This time to serve notice on the freeholders for a lease extension.  He had hoped to try and vary the strict lease. Evidence shows the already long length of lease wasn't an issue.  The lender obviously hoped to get round their lack of permission to do works (which they were already doing) by hoping to remove the strict clauses that prevent leaseholder doing alterations.  You wouldn't vary a lease through a lease extension. You'd need a Deed of Variation for that. This may be done at the same time but the lease has already been extended once and that's all they have a right to. The extension created a new legal angle for me to deal with.  I had to act as trustee for freeholders against me as leaseholder/ the receiver.  Inconsistencies and incompetence by receiver lawyers dragged this out 3y.  It still isn't properly resolved. The lease has already been extended once so they have no right to another extension. It seems pretty easy to just get the lawyer to say no and stick by those terms as the law is on your side there. Meanwhile - going back to the the works the lender undertook. The works were consciously in breach of lease.  The lender hadn't remedied the breaches listed in the dilapidations notice.  They destroyed the property.  The trustees compiled all evidence.  The freeholders lawyers then served a forfeiture notice. This notice started a different legal battle. I was acting for the freeholders against what the lender had done on my behalf as leaseholder.  This legal battle took 3y to resolve. Again, order them to revert it as they didn't have permission to do the works, or else serve an S146 notice for breach of the lease. The simple exit would have been for lender to sell. A simple agreement to remedy the breaches and recompense the freeholders in compensation - and there's have been clean title to sell.  That option was proposed to them.   This happened by way of mediation for all parties 2y ago.  A resolution option was put forward and in principle agreed.  But immediately after the lender lawyers failed to engage.  A hard lesson to learn - mediation cannot be referred to in court. It's considered w/o prejudice. The steps they took have made no difference to their ability to sell the property.  Almost 3y since they finished works they still haven't sold. ** ** I followed up some leads myself.  A qualified cash buyer offered me a substantial sum.  The lender and receiver both refused it.   I found another offer in disclosure.  6 months later someone had apparently offered a substantial sum via an agent.  The receiver again rejected it.  The problem of course was that the agent had inflated the market price to get the business. But no-one was or is ever going to offer their list price.  Yet the receiver wanted/wants to hold out for the list price.  Which means 1y later not only has it not sold - disclosure shows few viewings and zero interest.  It's transparently over-priced.  And tarnished. For those asking why I don't give up - I couldn't/ can't.  Firstly I have fiduciary duties as a trustee. Secondly, legal advice indicates I (as leaseholder) could succeed with a large compensation claim v the lender.  Also - I started a claim v my old lawyer and the firm immediately reimbursed some £s. That was encouraging.  And a sign to continue.  So I'm going for compensation.  I had finance in place (via friend) to do a deal and take the property back off the lender - and that lawyer messed up bad.   He should have done a deal.  Instead further years have been wasted.   Maybe I only get back my lost savings - but that will be a result.   If I can add some kind of complaint/ claim v the receiver's conscious impropriety I will do so.   I have been left with nothing - so fighting for something is worth it. The lender wants to talk re a form of settlement.  Similar to my proposal 2y ago.  I have a pretty clear idea of what that means to me.  This is exactly why I do not give up.  And why I continue to ask for snippets of advice/ pointers on cag.  
    • It was all my own work based on my previous emails to P2G which Bank has seen.
    • I was referring to #415 where you wrote "I was forced to try to sell - and couldn't." . And nearer the start in #79 .. "I couldn't sell.  I had an incredibly valuable asset. Huge equity.  But the interest accrued / the property market suffered and I couldn't find a buyer even at a level just to clear the debt." In #194 you said you'd tried to sell for four years.  The reason for these points is that a lot of the claims against for example your surveyor, solicitor, broker, the lender and now the receiver are mainly founded in a belief that they should have been able to do something but did not. Things that might seem self evident to you but not necessarily to others. Pressing these claims may well need a bit more hard evidence, rather than an appeal to common sense. Can you show evidence of similar properties, with similar freehold issues, selling readily? And solid reasons why the lender should have been able to sell when you couldn't.
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    • If you are buying a used car – you need to read this survival guide.
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    • Hello,

      On 15/1/24 booked appointment with Big Motoring World (BMW) to view a mini on 17/1/24 at 8pm at their Enfield dealership.  

      Car was dirty and test drive was two circuits of roundabout on entry to the showroom.  Was p/x my car and rushed by sales exec and a manager into buying the mini and a 3yr warranty that night, sale all wrapped up by 10pm.  They strongly advised me taking warranty out on car that age (2017) and confirmed it was honoured at over 500 UK registered garages.

      The next day, 18/1/24 noticed amber engine warning light on dashboard , immediately phoned BMW aftercare team to ask for it to be investigated asap at nearest garage to me. After 15 mins on hold was told only their 5 service centres across the UK can deal with car issues with earliest date for inspection in March ! Said I’m not happy with that given what sales team advised or driving car. Told an amber warning light only advisory so to drive with caution and call back when light goes red.

      I’m not happy to do this, drive the car or with the after care experience (a sign of further stresses to come) so want a refund and to return the car asap.

      Please can you advise what I need to do today to get this done. 
       

      Many thanks 
      • 81 replies
    • Housing Association property flooding. https://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/topic/438641-housing-association-property-flooding/&do=findComment&comment=5124299
      • 161 replies
    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

      Please note that a recent case against UPS failed on exactly the same issue with the judge held that the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 did not apply.

      We will be getting that transcript very soon. We will look at it and we will understand how the judge made such catastrophic mistakes. It was a very poor judgement.
      We will be recommending that people do include this adverse judgement in their bundle so that when they go to county court the judge will see both sides and see the arguments against this adverse judgement.
      Also, we will be to demonstrate to the judge that we are fair-minded and that we don't mind bringing everything to the attention of the judge even if it is against our own interests.
      This is good ethical practice.

      It would be very nice if the parcel delivery companies – including EVRi – practised this kind of thing as well.

       

      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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S.32 Limitation Act and Bank Charges


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Any question of how the law of limitation applies to bank charges is perhaps premature since it has yet to be established that they are recoverable. That does not stop the point arising. Let's assume for the sake of argument that some or all bank charges are recoverable.

 

Anyone who argues that section 32 (1) of the Limitation Act 1980 means that customers can claim charges going back more than six years faces an uphill struggle.

 

The law of limitation exists because it has been decided that there must come a point in people's affairs where there is certainty. That overriding objective must be borne in mind.

 

The English law has long recognised that clear rules strictly applied can lead to injustice. In the case of limitation it recognises that the strict application of time limits may lead to injustice and hence section 32 (1) of the Limitation Act 1980 which allows (in the words of the heading to the section) "Postponement of limitation period in case of fraud, concealment or mistake".

 

In any case where the section 32 (1) is pleaded the court will bear the overriding objective in mind; it will not allow the section 32 tail to wag the Limitation Act dog as that would undermine the whole principle of limitation.

 

In any action you first have to show that there was some "fraud, concealment or mistake" within the meaning of the Act - I italicise those words as they important. Then you are up against the question of when it was that the "fraud, concealment or mistake" could with reasonable diligence have been discovered as that is the moment from when time begins to run.

 

I have conducted some online research and my impression is that the decisions on how section 32 (1) should be applied are not consistent. That is I suppose to be expected since the subsection exists to mitigate the harshness of the overriding principle if strictly applied in every case.

 

Whilst my intuitive feeling is that section 32 (1) is not going to be of assistance in bank charges claims, I do not wish to be dogmatic on the point but above all to stress that how the law applies to bank charges is far from certain. I therefore urge those who insist the law is certain in favour of the consumer to restrain themselves for fear of creating expectations that cannot be realised. We have already had enough of that when it comes to bank charges.

Edited by Aequitas
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  • 2 months later...

how about banks telling us the charges are fair etc, then taking 2 years to make an offer (which you don't accept) at the FOS and then saying you're over 6 years?

 

how about the banks telling us the charges are fair etc and not making an offer, the test case putting all claims on hold and now that people can start reclaiming, they are being told it's over 6 years?

 

or you don't accept an offer through the FOS and want to start court action only to be told you're over 6 years (because the FOS took 2 years to make a decision)?

 

surely 'concealment and mistake' come to mind?

 

i'm in all the above situations.

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The basic point of limitation is that you have to bring an action within a certain time limit. Section 32 operates to postpone the date on which the limitation period starts in certain cases. Section 32 is only relevant to determine when the limitation period begins. It can have no bearing on what passes between the parties after the claimant becomes aware he has a right to claim. Once the claimant knows he has the right it can no longer be concealed from him. The defendant is perfectly entitled to argue on the basis of the facts or the law that he has no case to answer. Whether section 32 applies or not, you must start proceedings within the time limit to protect your position.

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  • 2 weeks later...

I would say the 6 years can only start once we KNOW we CAN reclaim Bank charges - which we still don't know -after the crazy SC decision and the apparent lack of activity since (other than GLC v HBOS in Glasgow Sheriff Court on 11 June).

 

Look at the situation with Credit Card default charges -where we can go back 6 years from the OFT report in April 2006 -i.e. we have until April 2012 to reclaim credit card default charges right back to when the very first unfair credit card default charge was imposed on us (around 2000).

 

The Shadow and others have dealt with this at length in some of the Credit Card default charges threads.

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Hi folks. My situation is not regarding bank charges (I already got mine back, £2400, some years back :)).

 

However I have started court action to recover overpaid ground rent on my property, they have demanded (and I' ve paid) £45 extra per year since 1995.

 

I have claimed back the full amount I have overpaid (Plus 8% interest), my landlords solicitor admitted that I had been overcharged due to a 'mistake' and offered to repay 6 years worth (relying upon the Limitation Act).

 

At this point I became aware of S32 of said act and pointed this out to them, also pointing out that they have admitted their 'mistake'.

 

Also I have raised this issue with them numerous times in the past, where they have denied any mistake, they also sent me a copy of a Deed Of Variation allegedly changing the amount of ground rent, later investigation showed that there was no such Deed !..

 

So not only could I rely on the mistake part of S32 but I think that the 'Deed' document sent to me would classify as 'fraud' or 'concealment'.

 

Anyway I'm still pushing for the full overpaid amount to be repaid and the court hearing is in July.

 

Andy

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I have credit card charges going back to 1996 - am I out of time then even theough they were called late payment charges as I was just about to send LBA and they have told me I am out of time because of Limitation Act - was going to use S32 for this very reason

 

I think you would have to prove that you were misled somehow, S32 does allow for the limitation clock to freeze and a court could decide that it should start running again from the date you found out (or reasonably should of found out) about the 'mistake, fraud or concealment'.

 

I cant really see where this applies to bank or card charges.

 

Andy

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Andy

 

Until the OFT report (in April 2006?) we did not KNOW that the Credit Card default charges are unfair - the card companies assured us their charges were fair and reflected their costs (fraud?).

 

We do know now - and we now have until 6 years after April 2006 to reclaim ALL credit card default charges and associated interest at their montthly reates compounded monthly - not just the balance over £12 (which is the amount that OFT have said is "not unfair").

 

However the law states any default charge must reflect the true cost - which it doesn't -and the card companies won't divulge their true costs - so they must pay up the lot - and do when challenged, although often only settling before going into court. You won't have seen any cases of credit card companies winning in - or even risking court on thsi point in the last few years!

 

See previous posts from me, The Shadow and others on the Capital One threads on this point.

 

Today's case in Glasgow Sheriff Court may determine the true cost of the bank charges - leaving the way open for us to reclaim the difference.

 

The 6 year limt will ONLY APPLY from the date of the verdict - giving us until June 2016 to reclaim ALL unfair bank charges.

Edited by Bigdebtor
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Andy

 

Until the OFT report (in April 2006?) we did not KNOW that the Credit Card default charges are unfair - the card companies assured us their charges were fair and reflected their costs (fraud?).

 

We do know now - and we now have until 6 years after April 2006 to reclaim ALL credit card default charges and associated interest at their montthly reates compounded monthly - not just the balance over £12 (which is the amount that OFT have said is "not unfair").

 

However the law states any default charge must reflect the true cost - which it doesn't -and the card companies won't divulge their true costs - so they must pay up the lot - and do when challenged, although often only settling before going into court. You won't have seen any cases of credit card companies winning in - or even risking court on thsi point in the last few years!

 

See previous posts from me, The Shadow and others on the Capital One threads on this point.

 

Today's case in Glasgow Sheriff Court may determine the true cost of the bank charges - leaving the way open for us to reclaim the difference.

 

The 6 year limt will ONLY APPLY from the date of the verdict - giving us until June 2016 to reclaim ALL unfair bank charges.

 

Hi. I thought about this some more after my post and you have a good point, although I'd suggest that it would work thus:-

 

In my case, normally I couldnt claim for 1997, becuase 1996+6 = 2003, BUT I didnt find out about the 'fraud, concealment or mistake' untill 2006, this gives me untill 2012 to start my claim.

 

To be honest the way S32 is worded is quite hard to get your head around.

 

In my (non-bank charges related case), in 2003 I specificaly asked my landlord about the ground rent issue and was sent a 'fake/misleading/incorrect' document. I'd suggest that the same MAY apply to bank charges if you specifically wrote to them and they told you the charges were fair and legal (Although no court has yet concluded that they are NOT fair and legal).

 

I did have a good court case on my PC somewhere which dealt with all the S32/limitation issues, Ill try and dig it out.

 

In the meantime, this site has a good explantion.

 

PROFESSIONAL NEGLIGENCE CLAIMS - WITHOUT LIMITATION? - Representation and Advice for Commercial Clients - Humphreys & Co. Solicitors

 

Andy

Edited by andydd
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Andy

 

I am pretty sure you have 6 years in which to make a claim from finding out you can (i.e the OFT report into Credit Card Default Charges) - I don't believe it's the case the claim can only be for the previous 6 years, although that is what the OC will contend at first.

 

I am sure the claim can go back to the very first unfair charge - which actually came in around Sept 2000 for most credit cards (but bank charges were much earlier) - so academic as far as credit card default charges are concerned. I believe any card company will pay out ALL charges and interest reclaimed - but possibly just before going to court if it's a pretty high amount.

 

BD

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Andy

 

I am pretty sure you have 6 years in which to make a claim from finding out you can (i.e the OFT report into Credit Card Default Charges) - I don't believe it's the case the claim can only be for the previous 6 years, although that is what the OC will contend at first.

 

I am sure the claim can go back to the very first unfair charge - which actually came in around Sept 2000 for most credit cards (but bank charges were much earlier) - so academic as far as credit card default charges are concerned. I believe any card company will pay out ALL charges and interest reclaimed - but possibly just before going to court if it's a pretty high amount.

 

BD

 

Surely this would only apply IF you could persuede a judge that S32 applies, you would have to persuede him that fraud or deliberate concealment of facts had occurred, which I believe you would find tough.

 

Andy

Edited by andydd
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Tifo

 

I agree. I think you have 6 years to make a claim for some wrong doing (from some point when you discovered the wrong doing or other definition of that point ) - but I think there's nothing to stop the claim going back to year dot if that single wrong doing had lasted for donkey's years - like bank charges.

 

BD

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That bears out everything I am hearing elsewhere.

 

Thanks Andy.

 

BD

 

Something went wrong with this reply. I meant to say the date of the discovery of the "fraud" or "error" was the OFT Report in April 2006 - up till them we "believed" the card companies' lies - so accepted their charges were "fair".

The wording of their lying letters claiming this should only be construed as deliberate concealment - just as the wording of the recent bank letters after the SC ruling "ha ha we won - you lost" did not report the full facts of the SC ruling and is another example of fraud or deliberate concealment.

 

I'll need to check my posts more carefully after editing in future.

 

BD

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I agree. I think you have 6 years to make a claim for some wrong doing (from some point when you discovered the wrong doing or other definition of that point ) - but I think there's nothing to stop the claim going back to year dot if that single wrong doing had lasted for donkey's years - like bank charges.

 

I understand this. But where in the law does it state we can only go back 6 years which is what the banks quote?

 

For example, i have credit card claims going back 6 years from 2007 but since the bank hasn't offered to settle (it's been through the FOS) it's now more than 6 years for each charge and the bank is quoting the Limitation Act 1980 and ignoring my assertions re s.32. It's an ongoing complaint from 2007 but they said they'll look at it as a new complaint and then say i am out of the 6 years for claiming and that they won't correspond anymore.

 

So i need to know where in the law it states we can only go back 6 years from the date of claim. I know it says we have 6 years from the date of discovery to make a claim but what if the charges are further than that?

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Tifo

 

I'm agreeing with you. The Banks are deliberately trying to mislead.

 

I firmly believe that until we get a court ruling in OUR favour the 6 years to make the claim hasn't even started to tick away - and since it is the same "wrong" (unfair charges) then the claim can go back to claiming all such charges and interst right back to year dot.

 

Let's hope GLC are doing well in Glasgow today!

 

BD

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All Credit Card default charges (and associated contractual interest compounded monthly) are all reclaimable already - since OFT report of April 2006. Howeve rthe GLC case could make the Banks go bust - or at least set up a huge backlog of claims - so get the credit card charges claims in now and get to the top of the queue!

 

BD

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  • 2 weeks later...
Hi folks. My situation is not regarding bank charges (I already got mine back, £2400, some years back :)).

 

However I have started court action to recover overpaid ground rent on my property, they have demanded (and I' ve paid) £45 extra per year since 1995.

 

I have claimed back the full amount I have overpaid (Plus 8% interest), my landlords solicitor admitted that I had been overcharged due to a 'mistake' and offered to repay 6 years worth (relying upon the Limitation Act).

 

At this point I became aware of S32 of said act and pointed this out to them, also pointing out that they have admitted their 'mistake'.

 

Also I have raised this issue with them numerous times in the past, where they have denied any mistake, they also sent me a copy of a Deed Of Variation allegedly changing the amount of ground rent, later investigation showed that there was no such Deed !..

 

So not only could I rely on the mistake part of S32 but I think that the 'Deed' document sent to me would classify as 'fraud' or 'concealment'.

 

Anyway I'm still pushing for the full overpaid amount to be repaid and the court hearing is in July.

 

Andy

 

I fear your claim may fail.

 

The point you are missing is that an overpayment is always a mistake. What is important is (quoting the Act) that "the period of limitation shall not begin to run until the plaintiff has discovered the fraud, concealment or mistake (as the case may be) or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it." Whether and whenever you ever saw the lease or a copy of it I think you must be deemed to be fixed with knowledge of its contents from the time you took the lease on. That means you could have discovered the mistake immediately. No one has ever concealed, or was ever in a position to conceal, from you what the correct rent was. The fact that a mistake was denied is irrelevant since you possessed (or are deemed to have possessed) what you needed to know what the correct rent was. The alleged deed of variation also had no bearing for the simple reason that it did not exist. (I confess I am puzzled how they could have sent you a copy of a non-existent deed. Even if the deed was forged that has no bearing because you could have discovered the error before the document was produced.)

 

Unless therefore there is some devil in the detail that you have not mentioned I would strongly urge you to settle for six years' overpayment.

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I fear your claim may fail.

 

The point you are missing is that an overpayment is always a mistake. What is important is (quoting the Act) that "the period of limitation shall not begin to run until the plaintiff has discovered the fraud, concealment or mistake (as the case may be) or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it." Whether and whenever you ever saw the lease or a copy of it I think you must be deemed to be fixed with knowledge of its contents from the time you took the lease on. That means you could have discovered the mistake immediately. No one has ever concealed, or was ever in a position to conceal, from you what the correct rent was. The fact that a mistake was denied is irrelevant since you possessed (or are deemed to have possessed) what you needed to know what the correct rent was. The alleged deed of variation also had no bearing for the simple reason that it did not exist. (I confess I am puzzled how they could have sent you a copy of a non-existent deed. Even if the deed was forged that has no bearing because you could have discovered the error before the document was produced.)

 

Unless therefore there is some devil in the detail that you have not mentioned I would strongly urge you to settle for six years' overpayment.

 

Thanks for your thoughts, I shall add some further detail to see if it clarifies anything.

 

I was supplied with a copy of the Deed when I initially questioned the ground rent amount, the Deed had some changes to be made to the original lease.

 

Point 1 was that the ground rent shall be raised to £xx.

 

It was only some years later that during some legal work that I obtained another copy of this deed, this time from the Land Registry, this was identical to the one I had been sent by the freeholder with one major exception, Point 1 didnt exist, therefore there had been no change to the ground rent.

 

So one must ask where the version held by the landlord came from ?. I dont think i shall go as far as saying that they fraudulantly constructed a copy, but I believe the wording of S32 "the period of limitation shall not begin to run until the plaintiff has discovered the fraud, concealment or mistake (as the case may be) or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it." applies and that I didnt uncover the mistake/concealment untill approx 2006, this would allow me to seek to recover the overpaid amounts going back to 1997.

 

I belive that S32 exists to prevent someone hiding or concealing information untill the 6 year clock has run its cause and then going to deny any liabilty.

 

Does my clarification make any difference to your views ?

 

Andy

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Does my clarification make any difference to your views?

 

There is certainly a devil in the detail!

 

The deed of variation existed and was registered at HMLR when you bought. The question is therefore whether you are fixed with notice of what the deed said (or in fact did not say) from the date of purchase or whether, in the circumstances you describe and bearing in mind that the deed did not in fact come to your attention until later, you were entitled to rely on the copy of the deed supplied by the landlord/landlord's agent. To put it another way, is it your actual state of knowledge when you first queried the amount of rent that counts or the knowledge imputed to you? It could go either way in court.

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